Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

Which of the following districts does NOT belong to the Narmadapuram Division?1. Hoshangabad2. Betul3. Sehore4. harda

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Sehore

The correct answer is Sehore.

  • Narmadapuram Division is one of the administrative divisions in the Indian state of Madhya Pradesh.
  • The division was formally inaugurated on 27 August 2008.
  • It comprises Hoshangabad, Harda, and Betul districts.
  • The three districts were earlier part of the Bhopal Division.

  • Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh - Shiv Raj Singh Chauhan.
  • Governor of Madhya Pradesh - Anandiben Patel
  • The literacy rate of Madhya Pradesh is 70.6%
  • The Sex Ratio of Madhya Pradesh is 931
  • Dances of Madhya Pradesh - Karma, Jawara, Tertali, Lehangi, etc.
  • Wheat is the largest cultivated crop of Madhya Pradesh.
2.

Bhopal was founded by King Bhoja. Which dynasty did he belong to?

Answer»

GUJARA PRATIHARA

3.

Local metabolic activity is the chief factor determining the rate of blood flow to the A. Heart. B. Skin. C. Skeletal muscle. D. Lung. E. Kidney

Answer»

A. True There is a close relationship between the work of the heart and coronary flow. 

B. False Skin blood flow is geared mainly to thermoregulation and normally exceeds that needed for skin’s modest metabolic requirements. 

C. True Local blood flow is largely determined by the vasoactive metabolites such as rising PCO2, H+ concentration and falling PO2. The changes produced by vasomotornerves are small compared with those produced by metabolites. 

D. False The entire cardiac output must pass through the lungs regardless of the local metabolic needs of the pulmonary tissues. It is greatly in excess of the lungs’ metabolic needs. 

E. False As in skin, renal blood flow (about one quarter of total cardiac output) greatly exceeds local metabolic needs. The blood is sent to the kidneys for processing. 

4.

In 1996, a treaty regarding the sharing of the water of Ganga at Farakka was signed between India and ______.1. Pakistan2. Bangladesh3. China4. Nepal

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Bangladesh

The correct answer is Bangladesh.

  • The Ganga Treaty between India and Bangladesh is an agreement to share surface waters at the Farakka Barrage near their mutual border.
  •  But the treaty, which was signed in 1996, divides water flow without sharing the value and uses of the river between the two countries. 
  •  It does not even take into consideration the uppermost riparian, Nepal, meaning that it takes neither a whole-of-basin approach to river management nor does it factor in the effects of upstream use of the Ganges on water availability at the Farakka Barrage.
  • The Ganga Treaty illustrates that a legally binding agreement is not the same as meaningful cooperation between the parties.
  •  It is solely an arrangement for the volumetric allocation of river flow in the dry season. It does not concern benefit-sharing, nor does it purport to be a comprehensive river sharing and management treaty. 
5.

In India, ______ is celebrated as the Constitution Day or Samvidhan Divas to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.1. 26th January2. 26th November3. 15th August4. 12nd October

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 26th November

The correct answer is 26th November.

  • The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November 1949.
  • The Constitution became effective on 26th January 1950.
  • The Constitution of India consists of two houses Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
  • To date, there are 448 articles, 25 parts, 12 Schedules, and 104 Constitutional Amendments (Article 368) in the Constitution of India.
  • Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar is known as the Father of the Constitution of India. he is the chairman of the Drafting Committee.
  • Important Days Celebrated in India:-

Date

Days

15th January

National Army Day.

28th February

National Science Day.

8th March

International Women's Day.

22nd April

Earth Day.

1st May

Labour Day.

24th April

Panchayati Raj Day.

5th June

World Environment Day.

11th July

World Population Day.

29th August

National Sports Day (Birth Anniversary of Major Dyanchand).

15th September

International Day of Democracy.

10th October

World Mental Health Day

16th November

International Day for Tolerance.

6.

Coronary blood flow to the left ventricle increases during A. Early systole. B. Myocardial hypoxia. C. Hypothermia. D. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart. E. Arterial hypertension.

Answer»

A. False It falls; coronary vessels are compressed by the contracting myocardium. 

B. True A fall in PO2 has a potent vasodilator effect on coronary vessels. Adenosine released from hypoxic myocardium is also a potent vasodilator. 

C. False The fall in metabolic rate and cardiac output in hypothermia reduce cardiac work and lead to a reduction in coronary blood flow. 

D. True Sympathetic stimulation increases the rate and force of contraction; the resulting increase in the rate of production of vasodilator metabolites dilates coronary vessels. 

E. True Myocardial work and metabolism are increased in hypertension.

7.

For each lipid-related topic A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list. 1. Coronary artery disease risk factor. 2. Source of energy. 3. Cell membrane solubility. 4. Cell membrane structure. 5. Metabolic energy per unit mass. 6. Derived from cholesterol. 7. Body lipid stores. 8. Lipase. 9. Carbohydrate hormones. 10. Protein hormones. A. When explorers were crossing Antarctica trailing all their food in a hand sleigh there was an advantage in taking a high proportion of fat rather than carbohydrate. B. Oestradiol, testosterone and aldosterone share a property which is not shared by insulin and vasopressin. C. In life-threatening acute inflammation of the pancreas (pancreatitis) considerable tissue damage is produced by a chemical which is detected in the bloodstream in large amounts. D. In patients who have had a heart attack due to blockage of the blood supply of the myocardium, drugs may be given to lower the blood cholesterol level. E. The interior of muscle fibres contains many glycogen granules and lipid droplets.

Answer»

A. Option 5 Metabolic energy per unit mass. Fat liberates just over twice the metabolic energy per unit mass that is liberated by metabolism of carbohydrates. The two substrates are both used by the body to provide energy especially in strenuous exercise. So by dragging relatively large amounts of fat the explorers were minimizing the load on their sleigh and maximizing the energy they obtained from their food. 

B. Option 6 Derived from cholesterol. Oestradiol, testosterone and aldosterone are all derived in the body from cholesterol. Despite being a risk factor for arterial disease when present in excess in the blood, cholesterol is a precursor of vital hormones and is synthesized in the body. Insulin is a protein hormone and vasopressin a polypeptide hormone. 

C. Option 8 Lipase. In acute pancreatitis large amounts of lipase escape into the blood and this leads to widespread fat necrosis as part of the life-threatening state when the pancreatic hormones enter the bloodstream. 

D. Option 1 Coronary artery disease risk factor. Excessive lipids in the blood, including cholesterol, are a risk factor for coronary atheroma. The lipid profile may also be improved by moderate exercise and avoidance of obesity. 

E. Option 2 Source of energy. During prolonged exercise energy is derived in approximately equal amounts from carbohydrate and fat. The glycogen granules in particular are a major source of energy. They become more prominent with physical training and are depleted after prolonged fasting exercise.

8.

For each case of disordered haemostasis A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list of findings.1. Capillary abnormality. 2. Deficiency of factor VIII. 3. Increased fibrinogen level. 4. Deficiency of prothrombin. 5. Deficiency of vitamin K. 6. Excessive heparin activity. 7. Massive blood transfusion. 8. Platelet count 90 x109 per litre. 9. Platelet count 20 x109 per litreA. A 15-year-old child is admitted to hospital with recent onset of widespread purpura (pin-head areas of haemorrhage into the skin). Laboratory investigations reveal an abnormality which accounts for the bleeding tendency. B. A 50-year-old man is receiving anticoagulant therapy (warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist) after heart valve replacement. He is admitted to hospital with haematuria (blood in the urine) and his INR (international normalized ratio, a measure of the prothrombin clotting time in relation to the normal time) is found to be 4.2. C. A 90-year-old women has blotchy purple areas about 5 cm diameter on her hands and arms. They are not uncomfortable and she has no health complaints. D. A 70-year-old man is operated on for aneurysm (swelling) of his aorta. Severe bleeding requires infusion of forty units of blood. His recovery is complicated by a bleeding tendency and he is found to have a very low level of fibrinogen. His treatment includes administration of heparin. E. A 10-year-old child with no known medical problems has been admitted to hospital for persistent bleeding after tooth extraction. Haemostasis had been achieved initially after the extraction but subsequently prolonged oozing from the tooth socket began.

Answer»

A. Option 9 Platelet count 20 x 109 per litre. Widespread purpura is due to failure of platelet plugging of capillaries and may be due to a low platelet count or to capillary abnormality. An abnormal laboratory test to account for this would be a low platelet count. Although both those given are below normal, only values below 20–40 x 109 per litre account for serious bleeding. 

B. Option 4 Deficiency of prothrombin. The action of warfarin, a vitamin K antagonist, is to impair formation of several coagulation factors, notably prothrombin. There are a number of cardiological indications for the use of warfarin, including heart valve replacement. The value quoted is above the usual recommended range and the prolonged prothrombin time due to a low level of prothrombin would account for the bleeding. 

C. Option 1 Capillary abnormality. With advancing age, capillaries like tissues generally become less resilient in the face of stress such as a relatively high internal pressure. This leads randomly to patchy areas of bleeding such as those described. Apart from their appearance they cause no problems. 

D. Option 7 Massive blood transfusion. Massive blood transfusion may lead to widespread activation of the coagulation mechanism – diffuse intravascular coagulopathy. This in turn causes so much deposition of fibrin that the circulating fibrinogen level falls to levels which result in a bleeding tendency. Paradoxically heparin, by preventing the abnormal coagulation, allows the fibrinogen level to rise and can relieve the condition. 

E. Option 2 Deficiency of factor VIII. This condition (haemophilia) does not interfere with initial haemostasis due to vascular closure, so the bleeding time is normal as in this case. However, when the vascular spasm wears off, failure to clot is revealed as a persistent ooze of blood. Treatment is by supplying the missing factor VIII.

9.

For each case of fluid balance disturbance A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list.1. Increased total body water. 2. Decreased total body water. 3. Increased extracellular fluid. 4. Decreased extracellular fluid. 5. Increased interstitial fluid. 6. Decreased interstitial fluid. 7. Increased blood volume. 8. Decreased blood volume. 9. Increased plasma volume. 10. Decreased plasma volume.A. A 20-year-old mentally disturbed patient has refused all food and drink for several days. Urine volume has fallen to around 100 ml in five hours. Plasma osmolality has risen to 320 mosmol per litre (previously 290 mosmol per litre). B. A 50-year-old man has suffered from vomiting and diarrhoea for several days. His peripheries are cold and he has a heart rate of 120 per minute and an arterial blood pressure of 90/65. C. A 50-year-old woman is suffering from weakness and mild confusion. She is found to have a plasma sodium level of 125 mmol/litre (normal about 140 mmol/litre) and has a raised level of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone). D. An 80-year-old woman has been admitted to hospital after vomiting blood. Following transfusion of several pints of blood she has become breathless and is found to have an increased jugular venous pressure. E. A 40-year-old man has been admitted to hospital with full thickness burns of 40 per cent of his body surface. Next day his blood pressure has fallen. A blood test shows a haematocrit of 54 per cent.

Answer»

A. Option 2 Decreased total body water. In the absence of any water intake, a person loses a minimum of around 1500 ml per day (500 ml insensible loss from the lungs, 500 ml insensible loss from the skin and 500 ml as the minimum amount of water which can dissolve excreted solid waste products in the urine). A urine volume of 100 ml in five hours confirms this condition. After several days there will be a water deficit of around four to five litres or 10 per cent of total body water, so the osmolality has risen by about 10 per cent. The water deficit is distributed between intracellular and extracellular fluid and oral water would correct the deficit. 

B. Option 4 Decreased extracellular fluid. The patient has lost a considerable volume of intestinal secretions. This fluid is isotonic and rich in sodium and chloride, the main extracellular ions. His main depletion is of extracellular fluid and this is confirmed by signs of severe peripheral circulatory failure evidenced by a low arterial blood pressure despite vasoconstriction (cold peripheries) and a rapid heart rate. He urgently needs replenishment of his extracellular fluid by intravenous infusion of isotonic (normal) saline. Although Option 8 accounts for the peripheral circulatory failure, Option 4 is more appropriate as it includes the underlying mechanism and points to the appropriate treatment. 

C. Option l Increased total body water. Inappropriately raised secretion of antidiuretic hormone causes excessive reabsorption of water as fluid passes through the collecting ducts. This dilutes all body fluids as indicated by the low sodium level (osmolality would be correspondingly reduced). The waterlogging of the body cells impairs function and this effect in the brain is manifested by confusion. Restricted water intake would improve the condition. 

D. Option 7 Increased blood volume. Replacement of blood loss is urgent in the elderly, but over-transfusion can increase the blood volume above normal. In the elderly there is an increased risk of heart failure and increasing the blood volume can precipitate this so that the heart cannot adequately clear the venous return. The filling pressure of the two sides of the heart increases, causing pulmonary oedema and breathlessness plus increased systemic venous pressure. Diuretic therapy would reduce blood volume by causing excretion of salt and water, thereby lowering extracellular fluid volume. 

E. Option 10 Decreased plasma volume. By damaging capillaries, burns cause increased loss of fluid and proteins from the circulation. In addition large amounts of interstitial fluid are lost through the damaged skin. Both effects lower plasma volume, raising the haematocrit. Low blood volume can lead to peripheral circulatory failure. The standard treatment is to infuse large quantities of normal saline, in proportion to the area of seriously burnt skin.

10.

For each of the intravenous fluids A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list of infusions. 1. 50 per cent glucose. 2. 1.8 per cent saline. 3. 5 per cent glucose (dextrose). 4. Normal (0.9 per cent) saline (sodium 5. 8.4 per cent sodium bicarbonate. 4. chloride). A. An isotonic solution which expands mainly the extracellular fluid volume. B. An isotonic solution which expands both intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. C. A major nutrient used in intravenous nutrition. D. A hypertonic fluid with about twice the osmolality of plasma. E. A fluid occasionally used to treat severe acidosis.

Answer»

A. Option 4 Normal saline. Normal saline has the same tonicity (osmolality) as plasma and extracellular fluid. Sodium doesn’t enter intracellular fluid appreciably. The chloride and water remain with the sodium in the extracellular space. 

B. Option 3 5 per cent glucose. 5 per cent glucose (dextrose) is also isotonic. It has the same number of particles as 0.9 per cent saline. Saline dissociates so the average particle molecular weight is about 30. Dextrose has a molecular weight of 180 and does not dissociate so about six times the mass of dextrose is required for isotonicity. 

C. Option 1 50 per cent glucose. A litre of 50 per cent glucose contains 500 grams of glucose, yielding about 2000 kilocalories (about 9 megajoules, MJ), around the resting daily requirement of an adult. 

D. Option 2 1.8 per cent saline. This is twice the osmolality of normal saline – around 600 as compared with around 300 mosmoles per kg. 

E. Option 5 8.4 per cent sodium bicarbonate. This concentrated bicarbonate solution has a high buffering capacity for hydrogen ions. However correcting acid–base balance is a complex procedure rarely benefiting from such drastic measures.

11.

For each case of anaemia A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list. 1. Iron deficiency anaemia. 2. Pernicious anaemia. 3. Microcytic anaemia. 4. Macrocytic anaemia. 5. Normocytic anaemia. 6. Bone marrow disease. 7. Compensatory rise in cardiac output. 8. Decreased blood viscosity. 9. Haemolytic anaemia. 10. Increased bone marrow activity.A. Normal under the microscope. The mean red cell volume is normal at 90 cubic microns. B. A patient with long-standing indigestion has noticed increasing lack of energy and tiredness when walking uphill. On questioning he has noticed that the bowel motions are unusually dark from time to time. Due to the indigestion the patient takes a bland diet without much meat or vegetables. C. A patient with a blood hemoglobin concentration of 60 grams per litre complains of recent palpitations (an abnormal awareness of the heart beat, often rather fast). When at rest, the pulse is 110 per minute and the blood pressure 140/60 mmHg. D. A woman of 75 has noticed unusual lack of energy recently and feels she is paler than usual. Her haemoglobin level is 110 grams per litre and the red cell count is depressed beyond that expected with the fall in haemoglobin. The circulating level of vitamin B12 is very low, but the folate level is normal. E. A patient with moderate anaemia is found to have a bruit (abnormal murmur) when a stethoscope is used to listen over each of the carotid arteries in the neck. The doctor is inclined to attribute the murmur to a physical effect of the anaemia on the blood rather than to an abnormality of the carotid arteries.

Answer»

A. Option 5 Normocytic anaemia. The haemoglobin concentration is about half normal, indicating moderate anaemia. Since the red cells look normal and mean cell volume is also normal this is a normocytic anaemia. It could be due to bone marrow disease, lack of erythropoietin or other chronic disease. 

B. Option 1 Iron deficiency anaemia. This patient has symptoms of anaemia, along with a suggestion of repeated bleeding into the bowel and a diet likely to be low in iron. The most likely explanation is anaemia due to iron deficiency. This is likely to be a microcytic anaemia, but no confirmatory details of the presence of small pale red cells are given in this case. 

C. Option 7 Compensatory rise in cardiac output. This patient has severe anaemia. In order to provide adequate oxygen for the tissues, the low oxygen content per litre must be compensated by increased flow. This patient shows the features – fast pulse, high pulse pressure – of an increased resting cardiac output (hyperdynamic circulation). 

D. Option 2 Pernicious anaemia. This patient has moderately severe anaemia. Because the red cell count is disproportionately low, the cells must be larger than normal – macrocytic. This is explained by the low level of vitamin B12 and the normal folate excludes another major macrocytic anaemia. The B12 deficiency at this age is usually due to failure of the stomach to produce intrinsic factor – pernicious anaemia. The term pernicious was used because before the discovery of vitamin B12 there was no treatment and the condition got worse and worse until the patient died from an extremely low level of hemoglobin. 

E. Option 8 Decreased blood viscosity. A bruit or murmur in the circulation indicates turbulent flow. Turbulent flow is much more likely as the viscosity of blood decreases. Since most of the blood viscosity is due to the hematocrit, moderate anaemia could reduce the viscosity by around half. The increased velocity of flow due to the increased cardiac output mentioned in (C) would also increase the chance of turbulence.

12.

For each of the body fluid disturbances A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list of abnormalities. 1. Hyper-osmolality. 2. Hypo-osmolality. 3. Hyponatraemia. 4. Hyperkalaemia. 5. Raised haematocrit. A. Excessive retention of water by the kidneys. B. Excessive loss of plasma and extracellular fluid as a result of severe burns. C. Likely to be present if the blood glucose level is 30 (normal 5–8) mmol/litre. D. Produced by drinking excessive amounts of water. E. Likely to cause swelling of brain cells.

Answer»

A. Option 2 Hypo-osmolality. Excessive retention of water dilutes all the body fluids leading to hypo-osmolality. Water crosses the cell membrane until equilibrium is attained. Inappropriately high levels of antidiuretic hormone could do this. 

B. Option 5 Raised haematocrit. As fluid is lost, plasma volume declines, so the red blood cells become an increasing proportion of blood volume. 

C. Option 1 Hyper-osmolality. The high glucose raises the osmolality proportionately, so a rise of 25 mmol/litre in the extracellular glucose level would raise the osmolality from 285 to 310 mosmol/kg, an appreciable rise. This would draw fluid from cells, including brain cells, disturbing function. 

D. Option 2 Hypo-osmolality. Drinking excessive amounts of water has the same effect as excessive retention by the kidney. However healthy people promptly excrete the excess fluid. 

E. Option 2 Hypo-osmolality. Excess water is drawn into brain cells by osmosis. This also disturbs brain function.

13.

The President of India(a) cannot be removed from his office after his election(b) can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Union Council of Ministers(c) can be removed from office only by a special procedure(d) can be removed from office through a motion of no-confidence passed by the Lok Sabha

Answer»

The President of India can be removed from office only by a special procedure

14.

The Upper House of the Parliament is …………

Answer»

The Upper House of the Parliament is Rajya sabha .

15.

The first item in the time-table of the Parliament is Question-Answer session. Then comes the Zero hour. What do you know about the Zero hour?

Answer»

When the Question-Answer session finishes, the Zero hour starts. It starts at 12 Noon and that is why it is called the Zero hour. During the Zero hour, urgent matters can be raised without giving prior notice.

16.

Complete the following flow chart

Answer»
Different Kinds of Bill
1. Government Bill
2. Finance Bill
3. ordinary Bill
4. Private Members Bill
5. Non finance Bill
6. Constitutional Amendment Bill

17.

The seven Union Territories occupy roughly ______ per cent of the total area of the country(a) 12(b) 0.33(c) 6(d) 3

Answer»

The seven Union Territories occupy roughly 0.33 per cent of the total area of the country.

18.

A Parliament is necessary for the existence of democracy. Do you agree? Explain.

Answer»

Legislature is the Committee that makes laws for the day-to-day administration of the country and for the protection of the freedom and rights of its citizens. The laws that are carried out by the Executive are made by the Legislature. The people in a country through their right to’ vote choose their representatives. The Legislature thus established democratically is responsible to the people. In different countries, different types of Legislature can be found. It is based on the relations between the Executive and Legislature that governments are divided into Parliamentary and Presidential systems.

19.

What do you mean by Money Bill?

Answer»

Money bills are those that deal with economic matters. They can originate only in the Lok Sabha. The process of Money Bill is different. After passing it, the Lok Sabha passes it on to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions. But Rajya Sabha has no power to change it or reject it. In 14 days’ time after the receipt of the bill by the Rajya Sabha, it should send it back to the Lok Sabha with suggestions. The suggestions can be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha. If the bill is not returned within 14 days, it will be considered to have been passed by both Houses. The Rajya Sabha has virtually no important role to play in the Money Bills.

20.

Suggest the instruments of Parliamentary control.

Answer»
  • Discussions and debates. 
  • Approving of rejecting the laws. 
  • Control through finances 
  • Motion of No-Confidence
21.

Name the two Houses of Parliament.

Answer»

Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

22.

How any members are there in the Lok Sabha?

Answer»

It has 545 members – 543 elected and 2 nominated.

23.

Point out the importance of the law of anti defection.

Answer»

Defection is when an elected member of a party refuses to obey party-whip and joins with other parties. Law of anti-defection makes such defections unlawful. The law envisages that the membership of the defected member should be canceled. This law ensures the stability of the government.

24.

Prepare a note on Parliamentary supremacy.

Answer»

Although both Britain and India have Parliamentary (Cabinet) System, the Parliaments in both countries do not have the same status. Since Britain has no written constitution, its Parliament has unlimited powers. It can pass or reject any law. Courts can’t question the Parliament there. The Parliament can even ignore Court decisions. In short, there is nothing the Parliament can’t do there.

25.

Who is the present Lok Sabha Speaker?

Answer»

Sumatra Mahakam is the present Lok Sabha Speaker.

26.

Administrators of Union Territories are responsible to the(a) Union Home Minister(b) Lok Sabha(c) President(d) Union Parliament

Answer»

Administrators of Union Territories are responsible to the  President

27.

A person can be a member of both Houses of Parliament(a) Yes(b) No(c) Yes, during a National Emergency(d) Yes, during a Financial Emergency

Answer»

A person can not be a member of both Houses of Parliament .

28.

The terms NPAs and Stressed Assets in financial sector refers to1. Insurance companies2. Chit funds3. Banks4. Mutual fund companies

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Banks

The correct answer is Banks.

  • NPAs
    • A Non-Performing Asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
    • Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful, and Loss Assets. 
  • Stressed assets
    • Stressed assets = NPAs + Restructured loans + Written off assets
    • The stressed asset is a powerful indicator of the health of the banking sector.
  • Bank
    • A bank is a financial institution licensed to receive deposits and make loans.
    • Banks may also provide financial services such as wealth management, currency exchange, and safe deposit boxes.
    • There are several different kinds of banks including retail banks, commercial or corporate banks, and investment banks.
    • Banks are regulated by the national government or central bank.

  • Chit funds
    • A chit fund is a type of rotating savings and credit association system.
    • Some variations of chit funds, the savings are for a specific purpose.
    • Chit funds are often microfinance organizations.
    • A chit fund comprises a group of members, called subscribers.
29.

The monthly salary of a State Governor is Rs.(a) 110000(b) 120000(c) 100000(d) 90000

Answer»

The monthly salary of a State Governor is Rs. 110000

30.

The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court draws a monthly salary of(a) Rs 100000(b) Rs 90000(c) Rs 120000(d) Rs 150000

Answer»

The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court draws a monthly salary of Rs 100000

31.

Which of the following list of awardees of Rajasthan - Ratna, 2013 is correct ?1. Laxmi Kumari Chundawat, D.R. Mehta, Jasdev Singh and , Late Hasrat Jaipuri2. Late Gavri Devi, Late Kailash Sankhla, Pandit Ram Narayan and Late Nagendra Singh3. D.R. Mehta, Jasdev Singh, Laxmi Kumari Chundawat and Kripal Singh Shekhawat4. Late Gavri Devi, Maangi Devi, Pandit Ram Narayan and Late Nagendra Singh

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Late Gavri Devi, Late Kailash Sankhla, Pandit Ram Narayan and Late Nagendra Singh

The correct answer is Late Gavn Devi, Late Kailash Sankhla, Pandit Ram Narayan and Late Nagendra Singh.

  •  Late Gavn Devi, Late Kailash Sankhla, Pandit Ram Narayan, and Late Nagendra Singh awardees of Rajasthan - Ratna, 2013.

 

  • Rajasthan Ratna (Jewel of Rajasthan or Gem of Rajasthan) is the highest civilian award of Rajasthan. Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position, or sex is eligible for the award.
  • Awardees are given one hundred thousand rupees, a shawl, and a citation by the state governor, chief minister, and minister of art and culture. The award mirrors the Bharat Ratna which is conferred by the Government of India.
  • Rajasthan Ratna 2013
    • D. R. Mehta (social service)
    • Jasdev Singh (commentary)
    • Ram Narayan (sarangi player)
    • Nagendra Singh (law)
    • Kailash Sankhala (environment protection)
    • Hasrat Jaipuri (Urdu Hindi poet)
    • Gavri Devi (Maand singer).
32.

It’s the ______ in this country to go out and pick flower on the first day of spring. A) use B) custom C) habit D) normal

Answer»

Correct option is B) custom

33.

Which one of the following pair is correctly matched ?1. Parsvanath - Janatrika2. Bindusara - Shakya3. Skandagupta - Maurya4. Chetak - Lichchawi

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Chetak - Lichchawi

The correct answer is Chetak - Lichchawi.

  • Parsvanath - Isvaku Dynasty.
  • Bindusara - Maurya Dyanasty.
  • Sakandgupta - Gupta Dynasty.
  • Hence, the correct pair is Chetak - Lichchhawi.

 

  • Chetak also called King Chetak was the representative of the Licchavi clan who ruled as a Republican President in Vaishali (India) reputed to have organized the Vajjian confederation of republics comprising the 9 Mallakis, 18 Gana Rajas of Kashi/Kosala, and 9 Licchavi Republics.
  • He was a 5th-century BC contemporary of Gautama Buddha and Jain Tirthankara Lord Mahavira. 
34.

Match List-I and List-1 and choose your answer from the code given below :List - IList - II(A) Rigveda (i) Gopatha(B) Samaveda(ii) Shatpatha(C) Atharvaveda(iii) Aitariya(D) Yajurveda(iv) Panchvisha1. (A) - (iv), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)2. (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (D) - (iii), (C) - (i)3. (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)4. (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (iii)

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii)

The correct answer is (A) - (iii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (ii).

List - IList - II
RigvedaAitariya 
Samaveda Panchvisha 
AtharvavedaGopatha
YajurvedaShatpatha

 

  • Rigveda - The oldest Veda is the Rigveda. It has 1028 hymns called ‘Suktas’ and is a collection of 10 books called ‘Mandalas.’
  • Samaveda - Known as the Veda of melodies and chants, Samaveda dates back to 1200-800 BCE. This Veda is related to public worship. 
  • Yajurveda - Stands to mean ‘Worship Knowledge’, Yajurveda dates back to 1100-800 BCE; corresponding with Samaveda. It compiles ritual-offering mantras/chants. These chants were offered by the priest alongside a person who used to perform a ritual (in most cases yajna fire.)
  • Atharvaveda - Stands to mean a tatpurusha compound of Atharvan, an ancient sage, and knowledge (atharvan+knowledge), it dates back to 1000-800 BCE.
35.

Equality, Fraternity and Liberty were ideas that emanated from the revolution of(a) UK(b) USA(c) France(d) USSR (now defunct)

Answer»

Equality, Fraternity and Liberty were ideas that emanated from the revolution of  France

36.

Who among the following draws the lowest salary?(a) State Governors(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India(c) Chief Justice of India(d) Judges of State High Courts

Answer»

Judges of State High Courts  draws the lowest salary.

37.

According to the constitution of India, the term 'District Judge' shall not include(a) Tribunal Judge(b) Chief Justice of a small Cause Court(c) Chief Presidency Megistrate(d) Sessions Judge

Answer»

According to the constitution of India, the term 'District Judge' shall not include Tribunal Judge

38.

The first Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir was(a) Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah(b) Maharaja Sir Hari Singh(c) Yuvaraj Karan Singh(d) Dr Farooq Abdullah

Answer»

The first Prime Minister of Jammu and Kashmir was  Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah

39.

In absence of RBI branch in a particular city, which Bank acts as the clearing house a) SBI b) HDFC Bank c) Dena Bank d) Canara Bank

Answer»

Correct option: a) SBI

40.

What is the full form of OTP?

Answer»

OTP -One time password

One time password is the full form of OTP.

41.

What is the expanded form of DSA?

Answer»

DSA-Direct Sales Agents

Direct Sales Agents is the expanded form of DSA.

42.

‘Instrumental value’ is the value that something has:1. In itself2. As a means to something else3. An end in itself4. As an emotional value

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : As a means to something else

The correct answer is As a means to something else.

  • Intrinsic value 
    • It is the value that an entity has in itself, for what it is, or as an end. 
    • The contrasting type of value is instrumental value.
    • Instrumental value is the value that something has as a means to a desired or valued end.
    • Instrumental value is always derivative on the value of something else, and it is always conditional. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
    • Something's instrumental value fluctuates based on changes in the desirability of the end to which it is a means and whether alternative, more efficient, means are available.
    • For example, the fishing line has instrumental value just in case a person wants to catch fish; and its value might diminish if a person gains access to a much more effective fishing net.
    • It is uncontroversial that ecosystems and species possess a wide variety of instrumental values (e.g., cultural value, recreational value, medicinal value, spiritual value, transformational value, natural resource value, and ecosystem services value). 
    • There are two different views on the basis or grounding for intrinsic value.
    • On one of these views, intrinsic value is created by human valuing (Callicott 1986, Elliot 1992).
    • On this subjective intrinsic value view, something has intrinsic value if it is valued for what it is, rather than for what it can bring about. Subjective intrinsic value is created by valuers through their evaluative attitudes or judgments — it does not exist before or independent from these.
    • Because of this, it is, like instrumental value, conditional.
    • People value a wide variety of things intrinsically (e.g., personal mementoes, cultural and religious artefacts, ceremonies and rituals, accomplishments, performances, and historical sites) and they do so for a variety of reasons (e.g., for what an entity represents, what it embodies, its rarity, its history, or its beauty).
    • Because it is reason-oriented, subjective intrinsic valuing is not arbitrary and it is open to evaluation — as well as revision — through education and persuasion. In this way, it is distinguished from mere preferences or tastes.
43.

a) To study facts of evolutionb) to establish relationshipsc)To study ecology of animals

Answer» To study a large number of various living and non-living things clearly and shortly.
44.

explain griffth experiment

Answer»

Griffith injected both S and R strains to mice. The one which was infected with the S strain developed pneumonia and died while that infected with the R strain stayed alive.

In the second stage, Griffith heat-killed the S strain bacteria and injected into mice, but the mice stayed alive. Then, he mixed the heat-killed S and live R strains. This mixture was injected into mice and they died. In addition, he found living S strain bacteria in dead mice.

45.

The main plant body of pteridophyte is (a) sporophyte (b) epiphyte (c) saprophyte (d) gametophyte

Answer»

(a) sporophyte 

46.

Poor arrangement and setting up of classroom lays ____________ impact on children.

Answer»

Poor arrangement and setting up of classroom lays Negative impact on children.

47.

______is the founder of the Gulabi Gang an Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh based social organization that works for women welfare and empowerment. 1. Sangeeta Pal Devi2. Sampat Pal Devi3. Sheila Pal Devi4. Mishi Choudhary

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Sampat Pal Devi

The correct answer is Sampat Pal Devi.

  • The Gulabi Gang is an exceptional women’s movement began in 2006 by Sampat Pal Devi in the Banda District of Uttar Pradesh India.

  •  The women’s group is well known as Gulabi or ‘Pink’ Gang because the members wear bright pink saris and hold bamboo sticks.
  •  The Gulabi Gang was at first intended to punish repressive husbands, fathers and brothers, and battle domestic violence and desertion.
  •  The Gulabi Gang consists of women between the age of18 and 60 years.
  • There is no gender-based discrimination in Gulabi Gang as it not only focuses on male jurisdiction over women but also on human rights and male exploitation.
  • The Gulabi Gang have also put a stop some child marriages and denounce dowry and female illiteracy.
48.

Who is known as "Shere-Bengal" or "Lion of Bengal"?1. Sheikh Mujibur Rahman2. A.K. Fazlul Huq3. Dr Bidhan Chandra Roy4. Kazi Nazrul Islam

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : A.K. Fazlul Huq

The correct answer is A.K. Fazlul Huq.

  • He was popularly known as "Shere-Bengal" or "Lion of Bengal".
  • A.K. Fazlul Huq was a key figure in Bengalee nationalist politics for around four decades and formed the peasant-based Krishak Praja Party.
  • Huq was the premier of undivided Bengal and chief minister and governor of East Bengal.

Sheikh Mujibur Rahman
  • He is called the ‘tallest Bengalee in a thousand years’, formed the Awami League in East Bengal, and transformed a youth movement into a powerful movement for freedom from Pakistani rule, known as Bangabandhu, or Friend of Bengal, he was independent Bangladesh’s first prime minister.
Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy
  • He was eminent in Bengal Congress
    politics and was opposed to the Partition.
  • He was the second chief minister of West Bengal from 1948 till his death.
Kazi Nazrul Islam
  • He was a radical rebel poet who edited the evening daily, Nabayug.
  • He is most famous for his poem ‘Bidrohi’ and for leading a protest against the visit of the Prince of Wales in 1921.
49.

Have you ever travelled through a forest? How did you feel?

Answer»

Yes. Recently, I had an opportunity to pass by a dense forest at the outskirts of my native place. I wanted to have a feel of it and so I entered a few meters into the forest. The silence and the darkness was both comforting and disturbing at the same time.

50.

Did you have any time to stop and enjoy the beauty of the forest?

Answer»

I was on my way to hometown. Even though, I didn’t have much time to stop by the forest, I enjoyed the limitless beauty for a moment. When I entered into the forest, the long grown trees made a canopy over my head. The leaves almost covered the sky. The gentle breeze spread the refreshing smell of damp soil. Every now and then there was a sound of birds chirping. I left the forest soon but it was an unforgettable experience.