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This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

What will you do if you have a needle stick injury of a HIV patient?1. Give incision to the injury2. Suck out the blood3. Squeeze out the blood4. Wash with soap and water

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Wash with soap and water

Concept:

  • Needlestick injuries are wound caused by accidental puncture of the skin by a needle.
  • Needlestick injuries can cause blood transmitted diseases such as HIV and Hepatitis B. Both of the diseases are life-threatening. Therefore, needle stick injuries are taken care of immediately without any delay.

Explanation:

Protocol of Needlestick Injury:

  • Cleaning with running water and soap.
  • Cross-check with patient's virology result.
  • Management
    • Vaccination for Hepatitis B and tetanus.
    • Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors.
    • Initiate Antiretroviral therapy within 72 hours of exposure.
  • Reporting

Preventive measures:

  • Use disposable syringes and needles.
  • Discard needles carefully and according to biomedical waste management.
  • Don't perform recapping of needles.
  • Always use a sharp container.

  • A needle stick injury with HIV contamination causes a chance of 1/160 chance to get the disease.
  • According to CDC, around 385000 needle stick injuries occur per year. 
2.

Calorie intake of 1-year-old child:1. 1000 Kcal/day2. 800 Kcal/day3. 1200 Kcal/day4. 1500 Kcal/day

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1000 Kcal/day

Concept:

About the Calories: 

> Calories are the amount of energy released when the body breaks down food. 

> Calories are a way of keeping track of the body's energy budget 

> If we consistently put more energy into our bodies than we burn the excess will gradually be stored as fat in our cells and we'll gain weight 

> If we burn off more energy than we replenish, we'll lose weight.

 

Daily calorie needs based on Age, Gender and the  Activity level

Age

Gender

Sedentary (Non-Active)

Moderately Active

Active

1 – 3

Male or Female

1000 cal

1000 cal

1000 cal

4 – 8

Male

Female

1200 – 1400 cal

1200 – 1400 cal

1400 – 1600 cal

1400 – 1600 cal

1600 – 2000 cal

1400 – 1800 cal

9 – 13

Male

Female

1600 – 2000 cal

1400 – 1600 cal

1800 – 2200 cal

1600 – 2000 cal

2000 – 2600 cal

1800 – 2200 cal

14 – 18

Male

Female

2000 – 2400 cal

1800 cal

2400 – 2800 cal

2000 cal

2800 – 3200 cal

2400 cal

19 – 30

Male

Female

2400 – 2600 cal

1800 – 2000 cal

2600 – 2800 cal

2000 – 2200 cal

3000 cal

2400 cal

31 – 50

Male

Female

2200 – 2400 cal

1800 cal

2400 – 2600 cal

2000 cal

2800 – 3000 cal

2200 cal

51 and older

Male

Female

2000 – 2200 cal

1600 cal

2200 – 2400 cal

1800 cal

2400 – 2800 cal

2000 – 2200 cal

Calorie rich food

Proteins: Red meats, pork, chicken with skin on (roast or broil don’t deep fry for your health), salmon or other oily fish, beans, whole milk, eggs, cheese, full-fat yogurt.

Carbohydrates: potatoes, brown rice, whole grain pasta, whole grains, whole grain breads.

Fats: Nuts and nut butters, olives, avocado, butter, salad dressings, mayonnaise, high-fat cheeses.

3.

The system of evaluation where an employee is measured against his/her co-worker is called:1. Reports2. Graphic records3. Critical incidents4. Ranking

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Graphic records

Explanation:

  • Graphic Rating Scales: On some sort of relative scale (usually 1-5 or 1-7), employees are assessed on specific characteristics, accomplishments and behaviors.
  • This is a useful method to observe improvements over time.
4.

Nursing has a code of ethics that professional registered nurses follow and:1. Protects the client from harm2. Ensures identical care to all clients3. Defines the principles by which nurses provide care to their clients4. Improves self-health care

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Defines the principles by which nurses provide care to their clients
  • The ethical principles that nurses must adhere to are the principles of justice, beneficence, nonmaleficence, accountability, fidelity, autonomy, and veracity.
  • Justice is fairness.
  • Nurses must be fair when they distribute care, for example, among the patients in the group of patients that they are taking care of.
5.

Based on the knowledge of electroconvulsive treatment, the nurse explains to the student nurses that atropine is given before the treatment primarily to:1. Increase body secretion2. Minimize intestinal contractions3. Decrease anxiety4. Prevent aspiration

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Minimize intestinal contractions

Concept:

  • Electroconvulsive treatment refers to the electrical stimulation of the brain in depressive disorder under anesthesia.
  • Atropine is given before ECT. Atropine is an anticholinergic medication.

Explanation:

  • Anticholinergic medication minimizes secretion of the body.
  • Atropine also acts to prevent transient post-ictal bradyarrhythmias. Bradyarrhythmias is a slow heart rate that is less than 60 beats per minute.
  • Atropine reduces gastric motility and lowers esophageal sphincter tone as an anticholinergic agent.
  • Anticholinergic medication does not provide prevent aspiration.
6.

The success of fluid replacement therapy for burn patient after 48 hours can be evaluated by:1. Weight2. Urine output3. Urine specific gravity4. Peripheral perfusion

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Urine output

Concept:

  • During the fluid replacement therapy for a burn patient, hourly urine output is monitored through the indwelling catheter.
  • Urine output helps to adjust the fluid resuscitation.
  • Urine output is a physiologic response and therefore is an indicator for hypovolemia.

Explanation:

  • The resuscitation phase is the time between initial injury and 48 hours after injury.
  • The aim of the resuscitation phase is to assess the severity of the burn, monitor airway and breathing, and prevent hypovolemic shock.
  • The burn injury leads to the loss of the majority of the body water. That causes hypovolemic shock.
  • Therefore, fluid resuscitation is required.
  • The fluid resuscitation is calculated through= RL's solution 2 to 4ml * body weight (kg) * percent burn.
  • The formula act as a guide and urine output help to adjust the infusion rate.
7.

Pregnant lady with card presentation in what is nursing priority?1. Give Trendelenburg position2. Give reverse Trendelenburg position3. Inform to HCP4. Gently push the cord

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Give Trendelenburg position

Concept:

  • Cord presentation refers to the condition of cord slipping down below the presenting part in the intact bag of membranes.
  • It is identified by pulsation in the intact membrane.
  • Management:
    • Do not replace the cord as it can lead to rupture of membrane.
    • Immadiate vaginal delivery. If vaginal delivery is not possible, cesaren section is performed.
    • While preparing for cesarean section, women is kept in exaggerated Sim's position or traditionally used trendelenburg or knee-chest position. Trendelenburg can be tirsome for the patient.

Explanation:

  • The positioning is done to minimize cord compression.
  • Cord prolapse is different from the cord presentation.
  • Cord prolapse refers to the cord lying inside or outside the vulva following rupture of membranes.
  • First aid management for cord prolapse:
    • Minimize the pressure on the cord.
    • Bladder is filled with 400-750ml of normal saline to raise the presenting part off the compressed cord.
    • Presenting part is lifted off the cord by gloved fingers.
    • Exgaggerated and elevated Sim's position with a pillow under thigh. Trendeleburg or knee-chest position has been traditionally used.
    • Replace the cord to minimize vasospasm due to irritation.
8.

A pregnant client asks the nurse in the clinic when she will be able to begin feel the fetus move. The nurse responds by telling the mother that fetal movements will be noted between which weeks of gestation ?1. 6 & 82. 8 & 103. 10 & 124. 14 & 18

Answer»

"Correct Answer - Option 4 : 14 & 18

CONCEPT:

  • Fetal movement refers to the motion of a fetus caused by its own muscle activity.
  • Fetal movements are the kicks, rolls, and hiccups of your unborn baby. Fetal movements show that your unborn baby is getting the oxygen and nutrients he needs before birth.  

 

EXPLANATION:  

  • Women who have already given birth have more relaxed uterine muscles that are consequently more sensitive to fetal motion, and for them, fetal motion can sometimes be felt as early as 14 weeks. By about week 21, the fetus begins to develop a regular schedule of movement.
  • The movements grow stronger and more frequent as your baby grows.

"

9.

A method in which several rounds of questions are given to a panel of experts is called:1. Meta-analysis2. Delphi technique3. Q-sort methodology4. Content analysis

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Delphi technique

Concept:

  • Delphi technique refers to the process of making decisions by surveying panellists. Several rounds of questionnaires are given to the panel of experts.
  • Every panellist is allowed to adjust their answers according to the answers of the last round.
  • Delphi's technique involves expert analysis and wisdom of the crowd.

Explanation:

Meta-analysisIt is a statistical analysis of multiple studies addressing the same research goal. It is an epidemiological study design.
Q-sort methodologyIt is also known as Q-sort. It involves investigating the perspectives of individuals representing different stances on an issue.
Content analysisIt is a tool for qualitative research for content analysis. It is widely used in social research.
10.

The ability of a person to readily recover from stressful situations is called:1. Resilience2. Androgyny3. Hardiness4. Mental freedom

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Resilience

Concept:

  • Resilience refers to the ability to recover from stressful situations. A stressful situation may involve trauma, the death of a loved one, the transition phase, unexpected change, chronic illness, accident, or any other stressor.
  • It is the process of adapting to an adverse situation.

Explanation:

Androgyny

It refers to the individual with both, masculine and feminine characteristics.

Hardiness

It is a concept that is related to resilience. According to Maddi, it provides courage to deal with stressful conditions. It consists of three attitudes; Commitment, control, and challenge.

Mental freedom

It is a concept of detaching yourself from the external labels and emotions and making choices for yourself.
11.

Inadequate intake by the pregnant woman of which vitamin can cause neural tube detect?1. Niacin2. Folic acid3. Thiamine4. Riboflavin

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Folic acid

Concept:

  • The deficiency of folic acid causes neural tube detection.
  • 400 mcg of folic acid is necessary for pregnancy.
  • A neural tube defect is a congenital malformation of the brain and spine. There are two types of neural tube defects anencephaly and spina bifida.

Explanation:

  • Niacin, thiamine, and riboflavin are not necessary for pregnancy.
NiacinCauses pellagra
ThiamineCauses beriberi
RiboflavinCauses ariboflavinosis
12.

Epidemic dropsy is due to:1. Ergot2. BOAA3. Aflatoxin4. Sanguinarine

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Sanguinarine

Concept:

  • Sanguinarine is a major alkaloid of Argemone oil.
  • Epidemic dropsy occurs when edible oils are adultered by Argemone oil.
  • Sanguinarine acts on capillaries. There is capillary dilatation, proliferation, and increased capillary permeability. It leads to edema and hypovolemia.

  • Epidemic dropsy is characterized by gastroenteric symptoms followed by cutaneous erythema and pigmentation. Respiratory and cardiac symptoms may also be present.

Explanation:

  • Ergot is a fungus that grows on wheat. The reaction associated with ergot is St. Anthony's fire.
  • BOAA that is beta-N-oxalylamino-L-alanine is associated with lathyrism.
  • Aflatoxins can be responsible for the poisoning in humans. The toxins are produced by fungi found on crops such as maize, cottonseed, and tree nuts.
13.

What is possible complication if patient complain pain, redness, tenderness and warmth on IV site?1. Infitration2. Phlebitis3. Extravasation4. Hematoma

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Phlebitis

Explanation:

  • Phlebitis is an inflammation of a vein.
  • The vein is hot, red and lumpy.
  • The lump is tubular in shape and it is tender to touch, it may throb and walking may be painful.
  • The cause of phlebitis in the leg is most often a clot in the vein just under the skin.
14.

What is the most serious complication of meningitis in young children?1. Peripheral circulatory collapse2. Blindness3. Communicating hydrocephalus4. Epilepsy

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Epilepsy

Concept:

About Meningitis: It is an inflammation of the fluid and membranes (meninges) surrounding your brain and spinal cord.

Causes:

1. Viral infection, bacterial infections fungal and parasitic infections.

2. Cancer

3. Drug Allergy

Epilepsy: It is a disorder in which nerve cell activity in the brain is disturbed, causing seizures.              

  •  Bacterial meningitis is a preventable cause of epilepsy.

Symptoms of Epilepsy:

  • Temporary confusion
  • Uncontrollable jerking movements of the arms and legs.
  • Loss of consciousness or awareness.
  • Memory lapses.

Causes of Epilepsy:

  • Lack of oxygen during birth
  • Stroke
  • Brain tumour
  • Severe head injury
  • Brain infection
  • Alcohol misuse
15.

Which of the following intervention demonstrate the nurse understand about the newborn’s thermoregulatory ability?1. Inspecting the newborn's umbilical cord2. Obtaining an APGAR score3. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer4. Suctioning with a bulb syringe

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer

Concept:

Newborn babies are less able to regulate their body temperature.

About the Thermoregulation:

  • Thermal care is central to reducing morbidity and mortality in newborns.
  • Thermoregulation is the ability to balance heat production and heat loss in order to maintain body temperature within a certain normal range.
  • The average “normal” axillary temperature is considered to be 37°C.

Radiant Warmer:

1. It is a body warming device to provide heat to the body.

2. This device helps to maintain the body temperature of the baby and limit the metabolism rate.

Apgar Score: It is a quick test performed on a baby at 1 and 5 minutes after birth. The Apgar score is based on a total score of 1 to 10. The higher the score, the better the baby is doing after birth.

A score of 7, 8, or 9 is normal and is a sign that the newborn is in good health.

Inspecting the newborn's umbilical cord: It is important that you keep the umbilical cord stump and surrounding skin clean and dry. This basic care helps prevent infection.

Suctioning with a bulb syringe: A bulb syringe is used to remove mucus from your baby's mouth or nose.

16.

Glutaraldehyde is used widely as a cold sterilant to disinfect a variety of heat sensitive instruments give the example?1. Forceps2. Scissors3. Laparoscopic instruments4. Patient bed

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Laparoscopic instruments

Explanation:

  • Glutaraldehyde is used as a cold sterilant to disinfect a variety of heat-sensitive instruments, such as endoscopes, dialysis equipment, and more.
  • It is used as a high-level disinfectant for those surgical instruments that cannot be heat sterilized.
  • Common instruments used during laparoscopic procedures include a: laparoscope, needle driver for suturing, trocar, bowel grasper and surgical mesh are also disinfect by Glutaraldehyde solution.
  • Disinfectant and sterilization of surfaces and equipment.
17.

Following death, the subjective response surviving experienced by the loved ones is called:1. Bereavement2. Mourning3. Compliance4. Grief

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Grief

Explanation:

  • Grief is a natural response to losing something important.
  • Grief is universal.
  • There are five stages of grief.
  • Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance are the stages.
  • Denial is the primary stage in the process of grief.

Stages of grief

Denial

  • Refuses to believe the loss has occurred.
  • Act as a defence mechanism to give a chance to understand the event.

Anger

  • Experiencing anger after lose.
  • May blame self or others.
  • Anger is necessary stage of healing process.

Bargaining

  • Making promises to change if the lose is returned.
  • Often accompanied by guilt.

Depression

  • Feeling of sadness, regret, fear, uncertainty, loneliness, and loss of interest.
  • There may be no hope.

Acceptance 

  • Accepting the reality.
  • Accepting the permanent change.
18.

Gown should be worn when:1. The client's hygiene is poor2. The nurse is assisting with medication administration3. The client has acquired immunodeficiency Syndrome or hepatitis4. Blood or body fluids are likely to get on the nurse's clothing from a task the nurse plans to perform

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Blood or body fluids are likely to get on the nurse's clothing from a task the nurse plans to perform

Concept:

  • The gown is an important part of personal protective equipment.
  • It protects the health care provider from the spread of infection, and a splash of blood and body fluids.
  • A gown should be discarded after use.

Explanation:

  • Other personal protective equipments are:
    • Gloves
    • Goggles
    • Mask
    • Shoe cover
19.

Most medication errors occur when the nurse:1. Is caring for too many clients2. Fails to follow routine procedures3. Is administering unfamiliar medication4. Is responsible for administering numerous medications

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Is administering unfamiliar medication

Concept:

  • The most common cause of medication is a lack of pharmacology knowledge.
  • Lack of pharmacology knowledge includes:
    • Improper dose administration
    • Sound-alike and look-alike drugs
    • Improper route of drug administration
    • Administration of unfamiliar medication

Explanation:

  • To prevent drug errors, the nursing staff should follow the ten rights of medication.
  • A nurse must follow only written orders.
  • If there is any query or doubt, it should be clarified first before drug administration.
20.

As a nurse, you teacher client who has had surgery to increase which nutrient to help with tissue repair:1. Fats2. Proteins3. Vitamins4. Carbohydrates

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Proteins

Explanation

  • Proteins are very essential in wound repair.
  • Proteins are polymer chain made up of amino acids.
  • Muscles and tissues are mainly made up of proteins.

Sources of Protein

  • Legume
  • Cereals
  • Whole grains
  • Nuts and seeds
  • Animal meat

Clinical significance 

  • PEM (Protein energy malnutrition)
21.

A nurse is caring for a client who has tracheostomy tube and is undergoing mechanical ventilation. The nurse can help prevent tracheal dilation, a complication of tracheostomy tube placement, by:1. Suctioning the tracheostomy tube frequently2. Using a cuffed tracheostomy tube3. Using the minimal-leak technique and keeping Cuff pressure < 25 cm H204. Keeping the tracheostomy tube plugged

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Using the minimal-leak technique and keeping Cuff pressure < 25 cm H20

CONCEPT:

  • A tracheostomy is an opening created at the front of the neck so a tube can be inserted into the windpipe (trachea) to help you breathe.
  • If necessary, the tube can be connected to an oxygen supply and a breathing machine called a ventilator. 
  • It will keep your airway open so you can receive oxygen, humidity, and/or breathing treatments. 

 

EXPLANATION:  

  • To properly and safely inflate tracheostomy tube cuff by inflating with the optimal prescribed amount of air or sterile water to create an optimal “minimal leak” to allow a minimum amount of air to flow between the tracheostomy tube cuff and the tracheal wall at the very end of inspiration.
  • This technique is commonly called Minimal Leak Technique and is used to prevent damage to the tracheal wall by preventing over inflation of the tracheostomy tube cuff.
22.

A client is recovering from an ileostomy that was performed to treat inflammatory bowel disease. During discharge teachings for this client, the nurse should stress on:1. Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration2. Wearing an appliance pouch only at bedtime3. Consuming a low-protein high fiber diet4. Taking only enteric coated medications

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration

Concept:

  • An ileostomy can cause dehydration.
  • The colon is responsible for absorbing water.
  • After the ileostomy, the stool passes from the ileum, and less water is absorbed for the body.
  • This leads to dehydration.
  • Therefore, a nurse must emphasize increasing fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Explanation:

  • Other important health teachings on discharge:
    • Consumption of a low-fiber diet.
    • Avoid enteric-coated medicine because of partial absorption of the medicine.
    • Avoid carbonated drinks and food.
    • Avoid gas-producing food.
    • Assess for any redness, swelling, or drainage in the stoma and inform the health care provider.
23.

When uterus is overstimulated by oxytocin, which of following signs the nurse can identity: 1. weak uterine contractions prolonged to more than 90 sec2. Increased labour pain with bright red vaginal bleeding3. Tetanic contractions prolonged for more than 90 sec4. Increased restlessness with pain

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Increased restlessness with pain

Explanation

  • Uterine hyperstimulation is a potential complication due to induction of labor.
  • Commonly used drug for induction is Pitocin(Oxytocin).

Dangers associated with uterine hyper stimulation

  • Blood flow to placenta reduces or may even stops.
  • Hypoxia
  • Ischemia
  • Acidosis
  • Uterine rupture
  • Birth injuries to baby.

Treatment 

  • Prostaglandin E2
  • Tocolytic treatment.
  • Beta 2 adrenergic drugs.
24.

A six month-old infant has recently begun cereal feedings. Which of the following manifestations would support a nursing diagnosis of ineffective infant feeding pattern: 1. Frequent lose stools2. Increased abdominal girth3. Persistent tongue thrusting4. Lengthened time between meals

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Persistent tongue thrusting

Explanation

  • Tongue thrust reflux is a reflex that automatically pushes food out from mouth.

 Tongue thrust

  • Trigger by touching something like rice cereal in to the lip or gently introducing in to the mouth.

Response

  • The tongue thrusts forward automatically, preventing the food from entering.

​Importance

  • Tongue thrust preventing the baby from choking.

​Usual time

  • 4-6 months
25.

Who is considered as the father of sociology?1. Auguste Comte2. Maclver3. Emile Durkheim4. Kingsley Davis

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Auguste Comte

Concept:

  • Auguste Comte is the father of Sociology.
  • He is considered the father of Sociology as he reinvented the term Sociology in 1838.
  • He developed a scientific method to study sociology.

Explanation:

  • According to Auguste, Sociology is the most important branch of natural science.
  • He believed the study of Sociology will lead to the betterment of society.
26.

Which of the following is true about IgM?1. It is not produced by vertebrates2. It forms the initial immune response3. It is not an isotypes of antibody4. It is the smallest antibody

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : It forms the initial immune response

Concept:

  • The human immunoglobulin system has 5 major classes.
  • IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, and IgE are five immunoglobulins.
  • IgM appears first in exposure to antigen, followed by IgA.
  • The presence of IgM signifies a recent infection.
  • It has high agglutinating properties.

Explanation:

  • IgM is produced by vertebrates.
  • IgM is one of the isotypes of immunoglobulin.
  • IgG is the smallest antibody in the human body. It is also the most common immunoglobulin.

A fetus can also produce IgM.

27.

Ketone bodies are found in urine of patients with uncontrolled diabetes due to:1. Increased metabolism of protein2. Increased metabolism of fat3. Impaired kidney function4. Decomposition of excess sugar in blood

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Increased metabolism of fat

Concept:

  • When the insulin is low in the body, the liver starts to break fat into ketones. Increased ketones in the urine are termed ketonuria.
  • Hyperglycemia or low insulin levels → lipolysis and oxidation of free fatty acids → ketones in the body → metabolic acidosis.

Explanation:

  • Starvation ketoacidosis occurs in deprivation of glucose. The body starts to use fat for metabolism that results in the production of ketones.
  • Alcohol ketoacidosis occurs because of alcohol abuse, and liver disease.
28.

A client is receiving external radiation to the neck for cancer of larynx. The most likely side effect to be expected is:1. Constripation2. Dyspnoea3. Sore throat4. Diarrhoea

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Dyspnoea

Concept:

  • The complication of radiation therapy includes:
    • skin irritation
    • xerostomia (dry mouth because of decreased production of saliva)
    • mucositis
    • laryngeal edema
    • delayed healing

Explanation:

  • Laryngeal edema leads to dyspnoea which is difficulty in breathing.
  • The edema causes airway obstruction.
  • It can lead to a life-threatening situation.

During radiation therapy patients are regularly assessed for the above side-effects such as airway distress and ability to eat.

29.

OSCE Means:1. Objective subjective clinical examination2. Observation subject clinical examination3. Objective structured clinical examination4. Observation structured clinical examination

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Objective structured clinical examination

Explanation

  • The modern type of examination assesses the skills like communication, clinical examination, medical and nursing procedures.
  • It is a performance-based test used to assess clinical competence. 

 Objective

  • Use of checklist for evaluation.

Structured

  • Trainee sees the same problem and performs the same tasks in the same time frame.

Clinical

  • The tasks are representative of real clinical situations.

History

  • Developed by the University of Dundee, Scotland in 1975 by Dr. Harden.
  • It was a subject in an international conference in Ottawa in 1985.
  • More than 50 countries accepted it.
  • Globally using now.

Advantages and Disadvantages

AdvantagesDisadvantages
Uniform scenarios for all candidatesOrganizational training
AvailabilityThe idealized textbook scenarios may not mimic real-life situations
No danger of injury to the patientExpensive
No risk of litigation 
Feedback from simulators 
Allows for recall 
The station can be tailored to the level of skills to be assessed. 
Allows for teaching audit 
Allows for demonstration of emergency skills. 
30.

A client needs to learn to use a walker, acquisition of this skill will require learning in the: 1. Affective domain2. Cognitive domain3. Psychomotor domain4. Attention domain

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Psychomotor domain

Explanation

  • Learning is the modification of behavior.
  • The psychomotor domain is skill based.

 It is steeped in a demonstration and three practical instructional levels.

  • Imitation
  • Practice
  • Habit

Levels according to Francis M Quinn

  • Perception
  • Set
  • Guided response
  • Mechanisms
  • Complex overt response
  • Adaptation
  • Origination
31.

The nurse plans to teach a client about the importance of exercise:1. When there are visitors in the room2. When the clients pain medications are working3. Just before lunch when the client is most awake and alert4. when the client is talking about current stressors in his or her life

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Just before lunch when the client is most awake and alert

Explanation

  • Teach the patients only when the patient is fully conscious, alert and in a good cooperative mood.
  • If the patient suffers from pain, or in an irritable mood, the nurse must focus to reduce the pain and stressor.
  • Because all other stressors cause inability to concentrate.

 Strategies to provide good teaching

  • Appropriate educational technology.
  • Determine the patient's learning style.
  • Arouse interest.
  • Consider the strength and limitations.
  • Include family members.
32.

Which of the following microorganisms causes gonorrhea?1. Stylus gonorrhoeae2. Streptococcus pneumoniae3. Stereotyoist gonorrhoeae4. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Concept:

  • Gonorrhea is caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
  • The bacteria infects the mucous membrane of the reproductive tract.
  • It may also affect the mucous membrane of the mouth, throat, and rectum.

Explanation:

  • It is a sexually transmitted disease (STD).
  • Symptoms of gonorrhea include:
    • dysuria
    • urethral discharge in men
    • increased vaginal discharge in women
    • itching
    • soreness
    • bleeding
    • painful bowel movements

  • Streptococcus pneumonia causes infection of the respiratory tract.
33.

widal, a serological test, is used to detect the presence of which of the following pathogenic microorganisms? 1. E coli2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis3. Haemophilus influenzae4. Salmonella typhi

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Salmonella typhi

Concept:

  • Widal test detects antibodies against the antigens of Salmonella. Typhi.
  • It assesses the antibodies against flagellar (H) and somatic (O) antigens.
  • Salmonella typhi causes enteric fever or typhoid.

Explanation:

  • The test was developed by Georges Ferdinand Widal in 1896.
  • It is an indirect agglutination test.

  • Salmonella typhi spreads through oral-fecal route.
  • Incubation period: 10-14 days.
34.

What is the immediate first aid management of chemical accident foreign body on the cornea area?1. Remove foreign body2. Cover the foreign body3. Clean the eyes with water/normal saline4. Give pain management

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Clean the eyes with water/normal saline

Explanation

  • Chemical injuries to the eyes are considered an ophthalmological emergency.
  • The chemical injuries can be from acid or alkali compounds.

 Agents

  • Alkali
    • Ammonia
    • Lye
    • Potassium hydroxide
    • Magnesium hydroxide
    • Lime
  • Acids
    • Sulfuric acid
    • Nitric acid
    • Hydro fluoric acid

First aid

  • Flush the eye with water in tap water for 20 minutes.
  • Wash hands with soap and water.
  • Remove contact lens.
  • Seek medical help.

  • Don't rub the eye.
  • Don't put anything against eye except water.
35.

When is the reason to perform naloxone challenge test on the client with opoid abuse?1. To check reaction of drug2. To check patient intrest3. To treat opoid abuse4. To check the level of physical dependance

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : To check the level of physical dependance

Explanation

  • Naloxone challenge test is used to assess physical dependency.

  • It is administered via the IM or IV route.
  • The dosage of naloxone is usually 0.2-0.8mg.
  • A positive test shows physical dependence and typical withdrawal signs and symptoms.
  • These signs and symptoms may last up to 20-30 minutes.
  • This test is helpful in starting maintenance therapy using an opiate antagonist. 
36.

A primigravida at 37 weeks reported to labor room with central placenta previa with heavy bleeding per vaginam. The FSH was normal at time of examination. The best management option for her is:1. Expectant management2. Cesarean section3. Induction and vaginal delivery4. Induction and forceps delivery

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Cesarean section

Explanation

  • Placenta is partially or completely attached to the lower uterine wall is called placenta previa.

​ Risk factors

  • Multiparity
  • Increased maternal age
  • Higher altitude
  • Smoking

Types

  • Low lying
  • Marginal
  • Incomplete or partial central
  • Central or total.

Indications for LSCS in Placenta Previa

  • Bleeding at or after 37 weeks.
  • Uncontrolled heavy bleeding.
  • Absent FSH
  • Gross fetal malformation
  • Dead fetus.
37.

In placenta previa and bleeding of gastation investigation of choice ?1. Perform USG2. CT scan3. MRI4. Pelvic X-ray

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Perform USG

CONCEPT: 

  • The placenta is a structure that develops inside your uterus during pregnancy, providing oxygen and nutrition to and removing wastes from your baby.
  • The placenta connects to your baby through the umbilical cord.
  • In most pregnancies, the placenta attaches at the top or side of the uterus. 

 

EXPLANATION: 

  • Placenta previa is the complete or partial covering of the internal os of the cervix with the placenta.
  • Placenta previa is diagnosed through ultrasound, either during a routine prenatal appointment or after an episode of vaginal bleeding. 
  • Diagnosis might require a combination of abdominal ultrasound and transvaginal ultrasound.
38.

The purpose of nominal scale?1. Ratio2. Range3. Mean4. Median

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Range

Explanation:

  • Data measured at the nominal level: Because all three measures of dispersion require data range to be ranked or summed, none of them are appropriate for data measured at the nominal level.
  • Data measured at the ordinal level: The range and interquartile range are appropriate.
39.

The most effective way to break the chain of infection is:1. Hand hygiene2. Wearing gloves3. Placing clients in isolation4. providing private rooms for clients

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Hand hygiene

Concept:

  • The most effective way to break the chain of infection is hand hygiene.
  • Hand washing stops the spread of infection.
  • Infections are easily spread through hands, aerosol, or contaminated equipment.
  • Nursing staff should wash hands before and after coming in contact with the patient.
  • In case wash can be washed, alcohol sanitizer should be used to clean the hands.

Explanation:

  • The chain of infection includes six points.
    • Infectious agent
    • Reservoir
    • Portal of exit
    • Mode of transmission
    • Portal of entry
    • Susceptible host
  • The chain of infection can be broken through the following steps:
    • Hand hygiene
    • Vaccination
    • Using masks and gloves
    • Isolation, if and when necessary
    • Cleaning and disinfecting the environment
    • Using sterile medical equipment.
40.

Pulse deficit is the difference between:1. Radial and ulnar pulse2. Radial and femoral pulse3. Radial and apical pulse4. Radial and carotid pulse

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Radial and apical pulse

Concept:

  • Pulse deficit refers to the difference between a radial pulse and an apical pulse rate.
  • The apical pulse is assessed through the stethoscope in a sitting or lying position of the patient.
  • The radial pulse is assessed by palpating the radial artery.

The pulse deficit is seen in atrial fibrillation.

Explanation:

  • Due to atrial fibrillation, there is electrical-mechanical disassociation.
  • This leads to poor perfusion in the periphery arteries.
  • It causes pulse deficit.
41.

Pulse oximetry is used to:1. Count the respiratory rate2. Determine the amount of oxygen taken into the lungs3. Measure carbon dioxide in the blood4. Determine the amount of oxygen carried in the blood

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Determine the amount of oxygen carried in the blood

Explanation:

  • Pulse oximetry is a test used to measure the oxygen level (oxygen saturation) of the blood.
  • It is an easy, painless measure of how well oxygen is being sent to parts of your body furthest from your heart, such as the arms and legs.
42.

The reason for using the parenteral route to administer medications includes: 1. Parenteral medications have a longer duration of action than an oral medication2. It is the least expensive method3. It is easier to measure an accurate dose4. The parenteral route allows more rapid absorption than the oral route

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : The parenteral route allows more rapid absorption than the oral route

Explanation

  • Any other route of drug administration that is not oral.

 Importance of Parenteral route

  • Speed and efficacy of drug action.
  • Absorption and bioavailability.
  • Rapid action.
  • Minimal adverse reaction.
  • Better tolerability.
  • Rapid delivery of therapeutic concentrations of drug to the desired site of action.

Sites

  • Intramuscular.
  • Intravenous
  • Subcutaneous.
  • intradermal.
  • Intracardiac.
  • intrathecal.
  • Intraocular.
43.

In helping to resolve a crisis situation it is most important for the nurse to:1. Meet all dependency needs2. Encourage socialization3. Support ego strengths4. Involve the person in a therapy group

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Support ego strengths

Concept:

  • Ego strength refers to the ability or behavior that helps them maintain good mental health in a crisis situation.
  • According to Freud, the ego works as a mediator between the id and superego.
  • The id is the primitive impulsive nature and the superego is the morale learned from society.
  • The ego helps to create a balance between the id and the superego.

Explanation:

  • Strengthening ego helps to develop attitude and behavior to get through a painful experience or crisis.
  • For example, it helps to forgive someone or to fight destructive habits.
44.

During the orientation phase of the helping relationship the nurse might do which of the following1. Discuss the cards and the flowers in the room2. Review the client's history to identify possible health concerns3. Work together with the client to establish goals4. use therapeutic communication to manage the clients confusion

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Work together with the client to establish goals

Explanation

  • The helping relationship between a nurse and patient is also called therapeutic nurse-patient relationship.
  • It focus on patient's ideas and feelings.

Components

  • Rapport
  • Empathy
  • Warmth
  • Genuineness 

Characteristics

  • Mutual learning
  • Mutual growth
  • Nurse and patient work towards goal

Phases

  • Pre interaction phase
  • Orientation phase
  • Working phase
  • Termination phase
45.

All the following are a good source of Omega 3 PUFA except:1. Mustard oil2. Fish oil3. Corn oil4. Ground oil

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Corn oil

Explanation:

  • Corn oil is high in omega-6 acids essentially, free of omega-3 acids, and contains less saturated fat than soybean and cottonseed oil.
  • Omega-3 fish oil contains both docosahexaenoic acid (DHA) and eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA).
  • Peanuts are an excellent source of plant-based protein, fibre, omega-3 and several other essential vitamins and minerals. 
  • Mustard oil is also rich in omega-3 fatty acids, including alpha-linolenic acid ( 25 ).
46.

In depression there is deficiency of:1. Dopamine2. Acetylcholine3. GABA4. 5-HT

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Dopamine

Concept:

  • Neurotransmitters refer to the chemical messengers in the brain. Neurotransmitters help to communicate between nerve cells. There are three types of neurotransmitters that play a vital role in depression.
  1. Dopamine: It is responsible for motivation. Low levels of dopamine result in not being able to enjoy or have pleasure in activities.
  2. Norepinephrine: Norepinephrine is responsible for fight and flight response. The deficiency results in depression and an excessive amount results in mania.
  3. Serotonin: It also plays an important role in the body. It affects emotional processing.

Explanation:

  • The deficiency of acetylcholine is associated with Alzheimer's and Parkinson's disease. Alzheimer's is characterized by dementia. Parkinson's disease is characterized by involuntary movements.
  • GABA is a non-protein amino acid. It has a calming effect on the brain. The deficiency of GABA results in anxiety disorder.
  • 5-HT, 5-hydroxytryptamine receptors are also known as serotonin receptors.
47.

Which type of leadership theories consider people inherit certain qualities that make them better suited to leadership?1. Situational theories2. Contingency theories3. Trait theories4. Behavioral theories

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Trait theories

Concept: 

  • Leadership is the ability to lead people. Theories of leadership explain why and who become leaders. 
  • Thomas Carlyle gave the trait theory. According to trait theory, people inherit qualities of leadership. Therefore, they are well suited to become leaders. Some of the inherited traits are:
  1. Extroversion
  2. Confidence
  3. Charisma
  4. Cognitive skills
  • Trait theory is similar to the Great Man Theory that believes people are born to lead. According to the Great man theory, leadership qualities are not learned, but some people are born to lead.

Explanation:

  • The Situational theory believes in leadership according to variation in situations. Leaders adopt different leadership styles according to various circumstances.
  • The Contingency theory believes there is no specific effective type of leadership. Leadership style depends on the particular variable of the environment.
  • The Behavioral theory believes that leaders are trained and made. This theory is the opposite of the Great Man Theory.
48.

An acid fast bacillus which is pathogenic:1. Bacillus pertussis2. Corynebacterium diphtehriae3. Salmonella typhi4. Mycobacerium leprae

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Mycobacerium leprae

Concept:

  • Acid-fast bacillus refers to the bacteria with the property of acid fastness. Acid fastness refers to the property to resist decolorization during staining procedures. The most common bacteria with acid fastness is Genus Mycobacterium
  • Mycobacterium tuberculosis shows the strongest property. 
  • Mycobacterium leprae has the weak property of acid fastness. M. leprae causes leprosy.
  • They are hydrophobic and impermeable to stain such as gram stain. 

Explanation:

  • Bacillus pertussis belongs to the genus Bordetella, which causes whooping cough. It releases Pertussis toxin. It has hemagglutinating activity.
  • Corynebacterium diphtheria is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause diphtheria. It belongs to the family Corynebacteriaceae. It is gram-positive and non-acid fast.
  • Salmonella typhi refers to gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria. It shows a positive test for lipopolysaccharide antigens and polysaccharide capsular antigen Vi.

  • Another acid-fast bacterias are Genus Nocardia. 
49.

Triple test performed at 15-18 weeks of pregnancy. What is the positive test result indicate that the body having down syndrome?1. high and UE3 tend to be high that of MSAFP is low2. MSAFP and UE3 tend to be high that of hCG is low3. MSAFP and UE3 tend to be low that of hCG is high4. high and UE3 tend to be high that of MSAFP is high

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : MSAFP and UE3 tend to be low that of hCG is high

Explanation

  • Down's syndrome is the commonest chromosome abnormality.
  • High maternity age is the major reason.
  • 1978-2010 incidence is increased up to 30%.

Screening

Second-trimester Screening Test.

  • AFP
  • E3
  • hCG

The triple test gives 70% accuracy.

  • Inhibin A is also tested and the test is known as the quadruple test.
  • Quadruple test reliability is up to 76%. 
DisorderMSAFPuE3Beta hCGInhibin A
Open NTDIncreasedNo changeNo changeNo change
Down's syndromeDecreasedDecreasedIncreasedIncreased
Trisomy 18DecreasedDecreasedNo changeNo change
50.

The infant undergone for VP (ventriculo peritoneal) shunt surgical procedure. On the assessment how will you assess the sign of increased ICP ?1. Respiration2. Blood pressure3. Anterior fontanel assessment4. Urine output

Answer»

"Correct Answer - Option 3 : Anterior fontanel assessment

CONCEPT: 

  • VP (ventriculoperitoneal) shunting is a surgical procedure for treating a medical condition called hydrocephalus, which occurs due to excessive fluid accumulation in the ventricles of the brain.
  • This fluid is called Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) and it is responsible for providing cushion to the brain and protecting from any internal injury to the skull. 
  • Intracranial pressure is the pressure exerted by fluids such as cerebrospinal fluid inside the skull and on the brain tissue. This pressure can prevent blood from flowing to your brain, which deprives it of the oxygen it needs to function. 

 

EXPLANATION: 

  • In children with an open anterior fontanelle (AF), where the skull sutures have not yet fused, an abnormal increase in the head circumference and bulging of the fontanelle are good indicators of raised ICP.
  • In severely raised ICP, the sutures may often be separated and palpable.

"