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1, 2, and 4 only are incorrectly matched.

• Article 14: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Hence 1 is  incorrectly matched
• Article 15: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. Hence 2 is  incorrectly matched
• Article 16: There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Hence 3 is  correctly matched
• Article 17: Abolition of untouchability. Hence 4 is  incorrectly matched
• Article 18:  Abolition of all titles except military and academic titles.

• Fundamental rights are the rights that are essential for the survival of people with dignity. 
• The Indian Constitution accommodates fundamental rights that are Justiciable subject to reasonable restrictions. 

There are six fundamental rights namely

1. Right to Equality (Article 14-18) 
2. Right to freedom (Article 19-22) 
3. Right against exploitation (Article 23 and 24) 
4. Right to freedom of religion (Article 25-28) 
5. Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30) 
6. Rights to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

The correct answer is All pairs are correct.

• Article 118 includes the Parliament’s authority to make rules for regulating its procedure and conduct of business.
• There are Standing Committees and Ad-hoc Committees.
• There are six types of standing committees in India and they are permanent in nature.
• The Committee on Subordinate Legislation comes under committees to scrutinize and control. It examines whether the executives are exercising their powers well to make regulations, rules, sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament. In both the houses, it comprises 15 people. 
• The Library committee comes under House-Keeping Committees or Service Committees. The library of the houses and the amenities attached with it are managed by this committee.
• The Committee on Public Undertakings comes under Financial Committees. It checks upon the credibility of the business of public sector undertakings. It checks the efficiency and autonomy of PSUs.
• The Committee on Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions comes under Committees Relating to the Day-to-Day Business of the House. It classifies bills and allocates time for the discussion on bills and resolutions introduced by private members.

The correct answer is Only a.

• Since independence, the Centre has been gradually extending its functions in such a way that the states become self-reliant to promote federalism.
• Hence statement a is not correct.
• The financial resources of the Centre are inelastic.

• Financial Relations
  • Articles 268 to 293 in Part XII of the Constitution deal with Centre-state financial relations.
  • Finance Commission (Article 280) recommends to the President on the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the centre and states.
  • Constitution divides the taxing powers between the Central and states in the following way:
    • Parliament has an exclusive power to levy taxes enumerated in the Union List.
    • State Legislature has exclusive power to levy the taxes enumerated in the state list. Both the Parliament and the state legislature can levy the taxes enumerated in the Concurrent List.
  • The residuary power of taxation (that is, the power to impose the taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament.
  • Under this provision, the parliament had imposed gift tax, wealth tax and expenditure tax.
  • Parliament can provide for grants-in-aid to states by the Centre. Such sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (Article 275).
  • The Union can make public purpose grants to states and to any institution within the states (Article 282).
  • Grants-in-Aid to the States - Besides sharing of taxes between the Centre and the states, the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the Central resources.  
  • Statutory Grants - Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year.

The correct answer is 1976.

• The Preamble to the India Constitution last amended in 1976.
  • It was amended by the 42^nd amendment act of 1976.
  • 42^nd amendment act was passed during the time of Indira Gandhi government.
  • By the 42^nd amendment act three new words, Socialist, secular, and integrity were inserted to the preamble.
  • The 42^nd amendment act of 1976 is known as mini-constitution.
• The preamble has been amended only once after its formation.
• The preamble of the Indian constitution is borrowed fro American constitution.

• Changes made by the 42^nd amendment act are:
  • added a list of 10 fundamental duties by adding a new part IV A.
  • Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
  • Added part XIV A dealing with the administrative tribunals.
  • Raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly from 5 years to 6 years.
  • Tried to give primacy to directive principles over fundamental rights.

The correct answer is 1 only.

• Democracy involves competition among various political parties and political parties use social division to get support.
• Due to this political competition in a democracy is social divisions that can lead to political divisions.
• In a democracy, a community may peacefully voice their grievances.
• Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity. 
  • It accommodates social diversity as it allows for equality, fair representation to all irrespective of their caste, creed, colour, race, religion, language or place of residence. 
  • Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Democracy does not always lead to the disintegration of the society based on social divisions as all social divisions are not dangerous. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• However social divisions may lead to conflict, violence, or even disintegration of a country in some cases. 
• Social divisions take place when social differences overlap.
  • A person may have multiple identities.
  • All social differences do not result in social divisions. 

• Democracy is a system of government by the whole population or all the eligible members of a state, typically through elected representatives. 
• Democracy is the government of the people, by the people, and for the people.
• It leads to good governance and helps in the Welfare of the public.
• It accommodates diversities like caste, religion, race, religion, ethnicity, etc. 
• People enjoy various rights like fundamental rights under democracy political system.  
• It leads to a government by the people through free and fair elections.
• It leads to the empowerment of weaker sections.  
• The constitution of India accommodates equality among various communities and social groups to strengthen democracy.
  • 33% reservation is granted to women in local panchayats.  
• It checks corruption and misuse of power.
• It leads to a transparent and accountable government.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on the objective resolution drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru and adopted by the constituent assembly.
• The Preamble reveals 4 ingredients of the components

1. Source of the authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.
2. Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic, and republican polity.
3. Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as the objectives. 
4. Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date.

• The word socialism is added by the 42nd amendment in 1976 in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • The constitution has socialist nature in the form of the directive principle of State Policy (DPSP). 
  • The Congress party adopted a resolution to establish a socialist pattern of society in its Avadi session in 1955. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • However, the Indian brand of socialism is democratic socialism and not communist socialism. 
  • Democratic socialism holds faith in a mixed economy where both the public and private sectors coexist side by side. 
  • Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease, and inequality of opportunity. 
  • Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism leaning heavily towards Gandhian socialism. 
  • The new economic policy of liberalization, privatization, and globalization in 1991 however diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian state to an extent.

• The Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution in the Berubari Union case (1960).
• In the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court overruled the ruling in Berubari Union Case (1960) and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. 
• The Preamble is neither a source of power to the legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislation. 
• It is non-justiciable which means provisions are not enforceable in a court of law. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Once.

• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution has been amended once on 18 December 1976.
• Through this 42nd amendment, the words "socialist" and "secular" were added between the words "Sovereign" and "democratic" and the words "unity of the Nation" were changed to "unity and integrity of the Nation".
• This amendment was done during the Emergency time in the year 1976.

• The Preamble indicates that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.
• The Preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
• The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
• The Preamble was adopted on 26 November 1949.

The correct answer is It indicates the objectives to be achieved.

• A preamble is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
• In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.
• The preamble basically gives an idea of the following things/objects:
  • Source of the Constitution
  • Nature of Indian State
  • Statement of its objectives
  • Date of its adoption

Components of Preamble

• It is indicated by the Preamble that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.
• The preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
• The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality to all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
• The date is mentioned in the preamble when it was adopted i.e. November 26, 1949. 

The correct answer is 168.

•  Under Article-168, Constitution of Legislatures in States.
  • For every State, there shall be a Legislature which shall consist of the Governor.
    • In the States of Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Uttar Pradesh, two houses.
    • In other States, one House.
  • There are two Houses of the Legislature of a State, the First Legislative Council and the second Legislative Assembly, and where there is only one House, it shall be known as the Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is (A) - (iv), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (ii).

• Article 215 - High Courts to be courts of record every high court shall be a court of record and shall have all the powers of such a court including the power to punish for contempt of itself.
• Article 222 - Transfer of a Judge from one High Court to another.
• Article 226 - Empowers the high courts to issue, to any person or authority, including the government (in appropriate cases), directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, certiorari, or any of them.
• Article 227 - Every High Court has a power of Superintendence offered to Courts and Tribunals throughout the territory.

The correct answer is Article 42. 

• Article 42 adds the clause of maternity relief.

• It states about maternity relief and just and humane conditions of work. 
• The State is responsible to provide just and humane conditions of work. 
• It states that the women are eligible to avail paid leaves during the time of pregnancy and childbirth.
• Its duration varies from 12 weeks to 26 weeks.

The correct answer is Article 18 (1).

• Article 18 Clause (1) prohibits the conferment of titles, Military and academic distinctions are exempted from the prohibition. 

• This means that Indian citizens cannot accept any titles from any foreign country.
• During the British era, Britishers had created an upper-class Rai Bahadur and Khan Bahadur in India, these titles were also abolished.
• Titles of Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Shri are excluded under article 18.
• The state gives these titles to its citizens for the good deeds they have done in their respective fields.

Never has the financial emergency been declared in India. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

• Article 360 of Constitution of India empowers the president to proclaim a financial emergency on the following ground:
  • If the president is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which financial stability or credibility of India is threatened or in danger.
• The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a financial emergency final and conclusive.
• The satisfaction of the president is held up in any court on any ground.
• However 44th Constitutional Amendment Act 1978 deleted this provision.
• This means the satisfaction of the president is under Judicial review.
• The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts and of all or any class of persons serving the Union.
• Till now, the Financial Emergency has never been invoked in India.

The correct answer is Duration of State Legislatures.

• The Legislative Assembly of any state, unless dissolved sooner shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer and the expiration of the said period of five years shall operate as the dissolution of the assembly.
• The Legislative Council of a state shall not be subject to dissolution unless nearing one-third of the members thereof shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year according to the provisions made in that behalf by Parliament by law.

• 42^nd Amendment Act made the advice of the Council of Ministers’ binding on the President but not on the Governor in the state.
• The Governor is the executive head of the state. 

The correct answer is Protection in respect of conviction for offences.

• Article 20 of the Constitution of India deals with the protection in respect of conviction for offences.
• Article 20 grants three kinds of protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether citizen or foreigner.
  1. No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a new law in force at the time of the commission of the act nor subjected to a penalty greater than that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
  2. No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
  3. No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
• The protection against double jeopardy is available only in proceedings before a court of law or judicial tribunal.

• Article 18 of the Constitution of India deals with the abolition of titles except military or academic.
• Article 10 of the Constitution of India deals with the continuance of the rights of citizenship.
• Article 43 B of the Constitution of India deals with the promotion of cooperative societies.

The correct answer is Pune.

• The "Indian Railway Institute of civil engineering" was established in 1988 in Pune.
• The IRICEN is one of six Centralised Training Institutes that share the task of training officers.
• The other Centralised Training Institutes are for training entry-level Civil Engineers.
• It is now a Centralised Training Institute and trains officers of the IRSE cadre of the Indian Railways.
• Director-General - Santosh Kumar Agrawal.

The Correct Answer is Limited government.

• The powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part-III of the Indian Constitution, which are essentially given to us against the state actions.
• Hence a constitutional government by definition is a form of limited government. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• A constitutional government may not have a legislature. Hence, Option 1 is NOT correct.
  • For example, the USA has a constitutional government but a Presidential form of Government.
• It could be a bi-party government and need not be a popular government and can instead be a monarchy. Hence, Option 2 and 3 are NOT correct.

• A popular government may be defined as is controlled by the people by the election of executives and legislators.
• A popular government may not always have a democratically elected government.
• China has a constitution but no multiparty system. Hence option 4 fits with the definition of a constitutional government.

The correct answer is a Legal right available to any person.

• The property right was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44thAmendment Act, 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution. It is not an exclusive legal right offered to citizens. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• By 44thAmendment Act, 1978 inserted Article 300A in a new chapter IV of Part XII of the Constitution, thereby depriving the ‘right to property of its ‘fundamental right’ status.
• Article 300 A of the constitution of India says that a person shall not be deprived of his property save by authority of law.

• Forty-Fourth Amendment Act, 1978
  • Restored the original term of the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies (i.e., 5 years).
  • Restored the provisions about the quorum in the Parliament and state legislatures.
  • Omitted the reference to the British House of Commons in the provisions about the parliamentary privileges.
  • Gave constitutional protection to publication in a newspaper of true reports of the proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
  • Empowered the president to send back once the advice of the cabinet for reconsideration. But, the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the president.
  • Deleted the provision which made the satisfaction of the president, governor, and administrators final in issuing ordinances.
  • Restored some of the powers of the Supreme Court and high courts.
  • Replaced the term ‘internal disturbance’ by ‘armed rebellion’ in respect of national emergency.
  • Made the President declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
  • Made certain procedural safeguards for a national emergency and President’s rule.
  • Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
  • Provided that the fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during a national emergency.
  • Omitted the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide the election disputes of the president, the vice-president, the prime minister, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is a government limited by the terms of the Constitution.

• Constitutional government
  • The core element of constitutional government is the existence of a Rule-of-Law or set of basic laws that bind both public office-holders and all members of a society within a given territory.
  • Presently most states avail of a constitution, which directs the organization of the state, the relations between the public offices within the state, as well the human and civil rights of the individual.    
  • The Constitution seeks to regulate political power.
  • Constitutional government means a limited government.
  • A constitutional government is conducted according to rules and principles which are binding on all political actors and which therefore help to constrain the unfettered excise of power by separating it or dividing it.
  • Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental Law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power.
  • The essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by its distribution among several state organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state.
  • Constitutional government in essence is about constitutionalism which is about limited government. In many cases, constitutional government is used interchangeably with “constitutionally limited government” or limited government. Hence, Option 4 is correct.

The correct answer is The Sovereign Democratic Republic.

• The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
• On 26th January 1950, India had the constitutional status of ‘sovereign, Democratic, republic’. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It was mentioned in the preamble of the constitution of India.
• By the 42nd Constitutional amendment act, the words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were inserted into the preamble.
• A preamble is an introductory statement in a document that explains the document’s philosophy and objectives.
• In a Constitution, it presents the intention of its framers, the history behind its creation, and the core values and principles of the nation.
• The preamble gives the idea of the following things/objects:
  • Source of the Constitution
  • Nature of Indian State
  • Statement of its objectives
  • Date of its adoption

• The ideals behind the Preamble to India’s Constitution were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru’s Objectives Resolution, adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
• Although not enforceable in court, the Preamble states the objectives of the Constitution and acts as an aid during the interpretation of Articles when language is found ambiguous.
• It is indicated by the Preamble that the source of authority of the Constitution lies with the people of India.
• The preamble declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic.
• The objectives stated by the Preamble are to secure justice, liberty, equality for all citizens and promote fraternity to maintain the unity and integrity of the nation.
• The date is mentioned in the preamble when it was adopted i.e. November 26, 1949.
• According to the Judgement of the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution.

The correct answer is 2019.

• The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act is deemed to have come into force on 19 September 2019.

• The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Law and Justice, Mr. Ravi Shankar Prasad.
• The Bill makes all declarations of talaq, including in written or electronic form, to be void (i.e. not enforceable in law) and illegal. 
• It defines talaq as talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq pronounced by a Muslim man resulting in instant and irrevocable divorce. 
• Talaq-e-biddat refers to the practice under Muslim personal laws where pronouncement of the word ‘talaq’ thrice in one sitting by a Muslim man to his wife results in an instant and irrevocable divorce.

The Correct Answer is Chandulal Madhavlal Trivedi.

• Sir Chandulal Madhavlal Trivedi was an Indian administrator and civil servant who served as the first Indian governor of the state of Punjab (then East Punjab) after Independence in 1947.
• He subsequently served as the first Governor of Andhra Pradesh from its creation in 1953 until 1957.
• Born- 2 July 1893
• Died- 15 March 1980
• The Governor is appointed by the president for a term of 5 years.
• Power and functions of Governor:-
  • Executive Power related to administration, appointments, and removals.
  • Legislative powers related to lawmaking and the state legislature, that is Vidhan Sabha or Vidhan Parishad.
  • Discretionary powers to be carried out according to the discretion of the Governor.

Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari:-

• Chakravarthi Rajagopalachari was the first Governor of West Bengal.
• Tenure:- 15 August 1947 to 21 June 1948
• Current Governor Of West Bengal:- Jagdeep Dhankhar

Maharaj Man Singh II ( Rajpramukh):- 

• Maharaj Man Singh II ( Rajpramukh) was the first Governor of Rajasthan.
• Tenure:- 30 March 1949 to 31 October 1956
• Current Governor of Rajasthan:- Kalraj Mishra

Dharma Vira:-

• Dharma Vira was the first Governor of Haryana.
• Tenure:- 1 November 1966 to 14 September 1967
• Current Governor of Haryana:- Satyadev Narayan Arya

The correct answer is Guna.

• The  Ground Satellite Communication Centre is in the Guna district of Madhya Pradesh. 
• A Ground station or Earth station is defined as a terrestrial radio station designed for the reception of radio waves from astronomical radio sources or extraplanetary telecommunication with spacecraft.