Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in .

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

• Article 163 provides for a council of ministers with the chief minister at the head to aid and advise the governor in the exercise of his functions except for the discretionary ones.
  • If any question arises whether a matter falls within the governor’s discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • Further, the nature of advice tendered by ministers to the governor cannot be enquired by any court. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • This provision emphasises the intimate and confidential relationship between the governor and the ministers.

• In 1971, the Supreme Court ruled that a council of ministers must always exist to advise the governor, even after the dissolution of the state legislative assembly or resignation of a council of ministers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Hence, the existing ministry may continue in the office until its successor assumes charge.
  • Again in 1974, the Court clarified that except in spheres where the governor is to act in his discretion, the governor has to act on the aid and advice of the council of ministers in the exercise of his powers and functions.
  • He is not required to act personally without the aid and advice of the council of ministers or against the aid and advice of the council of ministers.
  • Wherever the Constitution requires the satisfaction of the governor, the satisfaction is not the personal satisfaction of the governor but it is the satisfaction of the council of ministers.

The correct answer is VS Vyas

• The Chairman of the Newly constituted State Innovation Council is VS Vyas.

• State Innovation Council earlier working as GIAN-North was set up by Dept. of Science & Technology, Govt. of Rajasthan, and National Innovation Foundation (NIF) in 2003.
• It aims to provide incubation support to grassroots technologies.

• State Innovation Council help Rajasthan to become an innovative and creative society and a global leader in sustainable technologies by scouting, spawning, and sustaining innovations.
• State Innovation Council provides institutional support in scouting, spawning, sustaining, and scaling up innovations and helping their transition to self-supporting activities, seeking self-reliance through competitive advantage of innovation-based enterprises. 

• Meetha Lal Mehta was a former Chief Secretary to the Government of Rajasthan and the founder chairman of Rajasthan Mission on Livelihoods (RMoL). He was honoured with the award of Padma Shri award in 2015.
• Dr. K L Jain is an honorary secretary-general of the Rajasthan chamber of commerce and Industry.
• Ravi Jaipuria is an Indian billionaire and chairman of RJ Corp. He owns fast-food outfit Devyani International, a franchisee for brands such as KFC, Pizza Hut, Costa Coffee and TWG Tea. He is referred to as India's cola king.

The correct answer is 84.

• Delimitation means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country to represent changes in population.
• Delimitation Commission is also known by the name of boundary commission of India.
• The boundary of the various assembly and Lok Sabha constituencies based on the recent consensus is redrawn by the commission.
• Each state represents the same seats during this process.
• The seats which are represented by SC and ST are changing as per the recommendations of the commission.
• In any court of law, the orders of the commission cannot be challenged.
• Modifications in the recommendations of the commission cannot be done.
  • It is used to provide equal representation to equal segments of a population.
  • It deals with fact that one political party doesn’t have an advantage over others in an election to ensure fair division of geographical areas.
  •  “One Vote One Value” is followed by it.
• As per the order issued by the delimitation commission in 2008, 84 seats are reserved for scheduled caste in Lok sabha.
• Under the provisions of the delimitation commission act, the commission was established by the Government of India.

• India, Delimitation Commission has been constituted four times:
  •  In 1952 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952.
  • In 1963 under the Delimitation Commission Act 1962.
  • In 1973 under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1972 
  • In 2002 under the Delimitation Commission Act,2002.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3​.

• The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
  • Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The principal objective of NALSA is :
  • To provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society
  • To ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities, and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.
• The functions of NALSA include spreading legal literacy and awareness, undertaking social justice litigations, etc.
• Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.

• The National Legal Services Day is celebrated on 9th November to spread awareness for ensuring reasonable fair and justice procedure for all citizens.
• National Legal Services Day (NLSD) was first started by the Supreme Court of India in 1995 to provide help and support to poor and weaker sections of the society.
• Free legal services are provided in matters before Civil, Criminal, and Revenue Courts, Tribunals, or any other authority exercising judicial or quasi-judicial functions.

The correct answer is 1988.

• The SEBI was established in the year 1988.

• The Securities and Exchange Board of India was constituted on 12^th April 1988.
  • It is the regulator of the securities and commodity market in India owned by the Government of India.
  • It was given Statutory Powers on 30^th January 1992 through the SEBI Act, 1992.
  • SEBI has its headquarters at the business district of Bandra Kurla Complex in Mumbai and has Northern, Eastern, Southern, and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, and Ahmedabad respectively.
  • Controller of Capital Issues was the regulatory authority before SEBI came into existence; it derived authority from the Capital Issues (Control) Act, 1947.
  • The aim of SEBI is .to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.
  • Ajay Tyagi is the current Chairman of SEBI.

The correct answer is Option 4.

• To supervise the functioning of the State Public Service Commissions​ is not a statutory function of UPSC.

• The Union Public Service Commission commonly abbreviated as UPSC is India's premier central recruiting agency.
• It is responsible for appointments to and examinations for All India services and group A & group B of Central services.
• While the Department of Personnel and Training is the central personnel agency in India.
• Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the constitution, titled as Services Under the Union and the States, provide for a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each state.
• Accordingly, as per Art. 315, at Union level, Union Public Service Commission is envisaged by it.
• UPSC is amongst the few institutions which function with both autonomy and freedom, along with the country’s higher judiciary and lately the Election Commission.
• As per Art. 316, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission shall be appointed by the President.
• The agency's charter is granted by Part XIV of the Constitution of India, titled as Services Under the Union and the States.
• The commission is mandated by the Constitution for appointments to the services of the Union and All India Services.
• It is also required to be consulted by the Government in matters relating to the appointment, transfer, promotion, and disciplinary matters.
• The commission reports directly to the President and can advise the Government through him.
• Although, such advice is not binding on the Government.
• Being a constitutional authority, UPSC is amongst the few institutions which function with both autonomy and freedom, along with the country’s higher judiciary and lately the Election Commission.
• The commission is headquartered at Dholpur House, in New Delhi and functions through its own secretariat.
• Pradeep Kumar Joshi has been the Chairman of UPSC since August 2020.
• Established on 1 October 1926 as Public Service Commission, it was later reconstituted as Federal Public Service Commission by the Government of India Act 1935; only to be renamed as today's Union Public Service Commission after the independence.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

• The High Court of Karnataka and the Karnataka State Legal Services Authority (KSLSA) have created history in settlement of cases.

• What is a Lok Adalat?
  • Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably.
  • The Lok Adalats are formed to fulfil the promise given by the preamble of the Indian Constitution– securing Justice – social, economic and political of every citizen of India. 
• Constitutional basis:
  • Article 39A of the Constitution provides for free legal aid to the deprived and weaker sections of the society and to promote justice on the base of equal opportunity.
  • Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Constitution also make it compulsory for the State to guarantee equality before the law.
• Statutory provisions:
  • Under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 Lok Adalats have been given statutory status. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Final award:
  • The decision made by the Lok Adalats is considered to be a verdict of a civil court and is ultimate and binding on all parties. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• No appeal:
  • There is no provision for an appeal against the verdict made by Lok Adalat.
  • But, they are free to initiate litigation by approaching the court of appropriate jurisdiction by filing a case by following the required procedure, in exercise of their right to litigate.
• Court fee:
  • There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is also refunded back to the parties.

The Correct Answer is "1993".

• The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• It is responsible for looking into cases of excesses that are violating human rights and to strengthen the efforts to uphold human rights in the country.
• Presently it is comprised of a speaker and 4 members.
• This is a multilateral institution.
• The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provided that the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. 
• A person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a Judge of the Supreme Court be the chairperson of the NHRC.
• Currently, the chairpersons of various commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and the National Commission for Women are members of the NHRC.

• The bill provides for the inclusion of the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as members of the NHRC.
• The bill seeks to increase the persons having knowledge of human rights to be appointed as members from two to three. Further, it mandates one of them to be a woman.
• The bill provides that a person who has been Chief Justice or Judge of a High Court will be the chairperson of an SHRC.
• The bill seeks to reduce the term of office chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC from five years or till the age of seventy years to three years or till the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
• The Bill provides for the central government to confer on an SHRC human rights functions being discharged by Union Territories. 
• Further, it provides for functions relating to human rights in the case of Delhi to be dealt with by the NHRC.

The correct answer is 11.

• The total number of Fundamental Duties provided by Article 51A of the Constitution of India is 11.
• Part IVA of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
• There are 11 Fundamental duties.

Article 51A: Fundamental duties:

1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
5. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
7. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.
11. To provide opportunities for education by the parent the guardian, to his child, or a ward between the age of 6-14 years as the case may be.

The correct answer is 1 only.

• The Constitution clearly demarcates subjects, which are under the exclusive domain of the Union and those under the States.
• It also includes those subjects which are under the domains of both Centre and State.

• The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States.
• It contains three lists-Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
• Union List - Union Legislature alone can make laws on these matters.
  • Defense
  • Atomic Energy
  • Foreign Affairs
  • War and Peace
  • Banking
  • Railways
  • Post and Telegraph
  • Airways
  • Ports
  • Foreign Trade
  • Currency & Coinage
• State List - State Legislature can make laws on these matters (though it sometimes has exceptions).
  • Agriculture
  • Police
  • Prison
  • Local Government
  • Public Heath
  • Land
  • Liquor
  • Trade and Commerce
  • Livestock and Animal Husbandry
  • State Public Services
• Concurrent List - Both Union and State Legislature alone can make laws on these matters. 
  • Education
  • Transfer of Property other than Agricultural land
  • Forests
  • Trade Unions
  • Adulteration
  • Adoption and Succession

The correct answer is Article 30.

• Article 30 states the Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions in the country.
• All minorities (religion or language) have equal rights to administer and establish educational institutions of their choice within the country.

• If the state makes any law that provides the compulsory possession of any property of an academic institution that is established and administered by a minority.
• The State has to make sure that the quantity fixed for the acquisition of such property under such law should not restrict or interfere with the right guaranteed to them.
• The State has no right to discriminate among any educational institution which is managed by a minority in granting aid.

The Correct Answer is All questions before it are decided by a majority of judges present.

• One of the six main organs of the United Nations is the International Court of Justice(ICJ).
• In accordance with international law, it resolves disputes between states and provides advisory opinions on international legal issues. The ICJ, with its judgments and opinions acting as primary sources of international law, is the only international court adjudicating general disputes between countries.
• The ICJ is the successor to the Permanent Court of International Justice (PCIJ), which was established by the League of Nations in 1920.
• The ICJ is a body of 15 judges elected to a nine-year term by the General Assembly and Security Council.
• The ICJ, which is housed in the Peace Palace in The Hague, Netherlands, is the only major UN body not located in New York City. English and French are his official working languages. 
• Judges qualify for re-election. A special election is held as soon as possible to select a judge to fill the unexpired portion of the term if a judge dies or resigns during his or her term of office.

The correct answer is Only a and c.

• 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 added part IX consisting of 16 Articles and the Eleventh Schedule to the Indian Constitution
• There are two types of provisions in this act compulsory and voluntary provisions.
  • compulsory provisions:-  These provisions need to be included in the state laws related to the Panchayati Raj system.
    • Below are some of the compulsory provisions of this act,
    • Organization of Gram Sabha.
    • Establishment of Panchayats at 3 levels i.e., village, intermediate, and district levels.
    • Direct elections to all seats in Panchayats including at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
    • Post of Chairperson to be elected by indirect elections at the intermediate and district levels.
    • The minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats will be 21 years.
    • Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in Panchayats - village, intermediate, and district levels.
    • Reservation of 1/3rd seats for women in Panchayats - village, intermediate, and district levels
    • 5 years fixed tenure for Panchayats - village, intermediate, and district levels.
    • Holding fresh elections within 6 months in the event of super-session of any panchayat.
    • State Election Commission establishment for conducting elections to the Panchayats
    • State Finance Commission constitution after every 5 years to review the financial position of the Panchayats.
  • Voluntary provisions:- These provisions inclusion is at the discretion of the State government
    • Below are some of the voluntary provisions of this act,
    • Providing representation to members of the Parliament and state legislature in the Panchayats (at different levels) falling within their respective constituencies.
    • Having reservation of seats (of members and chairpersons) for backward classes in Panchayats at any or all 3 levels.
    • Granting powers and authority to the Panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government (in short, making them autonomous bodies).
    • Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon Panchayats.
    • To prepare plans for economic development and social justice.
    • Perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the 11th Schedule of the Constitution.
    • Giving financial powers to the Panchayats, like authorizing them to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, fees duties, and tolls.

The Correct answer is All of the above.

• Local Self Government is an institution comprising locally elected representatives managing the affairs of the locality and providing locals with basic amenities.

features of the local self-government in India:

1. Decentralization -  

• It is necessary that in a democracy, tasks, which can be performed locally, should be left in the hands of the local people and their representatives.

• Democracy is about meaningful participation. It is at the level of local government that common citizens can be involved in decision making about their development.

• Democracy is also about accountability. Strong and vibrant local governments ensure both active participation and purposeful accountability.

• Local government is closest to the common people. It involves the governance and administration of the day-to-day life and problems of ordinary citizens. The local government believes that local knowledge and local interest are essential ingredients for democratic decision making.

• The advantage of local self-government is that it is so near the people that it is convenient for the people to approach the local government for solving their problems both quickly and with minimum cost.
• Therefore the local government is necessary for efficient and people-friendly administration. Local governments can be very effective in protecting the local interests of the people.

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

,

• ‘Constitution’ is a compact document that comprises a number of articles about the state, specifying how the state is to be constituted and what norms it should follow. 
• Functions of a Constitution:
  • The first function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of society. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The second function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society.
    • It decides how the government will be constituted. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • A constitution is a body of fundamental principles according to which a state is constituted or governed.
  • The third function of a constitution is to set some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • These limits are fundamental in the sense that the government may never trespass them.
  • The fourth function of a constitution is to enable the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society. 
    • Constitutions are not only rules and regulations controlling the powers of the government.
    • They also give powers to the government for pursuing the collective good of society.
  • The Constitution expresses the fundamental identity of people.
    • This means the people as a collective entity comes into being only through the basic constitution.
    • It is by agreeing to a basic set of norms about how one should be governed, and who should be governed that one forms a collective identity. 

The right answer is 2, 4 and 5 only

The following are some of the elements of democratic government

• Periodic Elections are conducted in order to hold government leaders accountable.
• People decide whom to elect and the government takes policy decisions having people in mind, hence the decision is lead by more participation of the people as against given in the first statement so statement 1 is wrong
• In a diverse society, there is a chance of conflicts. It is the role of government to solve the conflict amicably and not by Government Force. Statement 3 is wrong
• All people and social groups should be treated equally without any discrimination. 

• Participation of people in silent protest, marches, rallies, dharnas, strikes, signature campaigns is accepted mode of expressions. 
• People can organise themselves in groups also to raise their concerns. 
• Only the use of coercion, violence, damage to public property and terrorism are not considered as democratic form. 
• Hence statement 5 is correct

The correct answer is Sarojini Naidu.

• Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of the state of Uttar Pradesh.
• She was the 1st indian woman who became the Congress president in 1925 at Kanpur Session.
• Sarojini Naidu was a key figure during India’s independence struggle. Her work as a poet earned her the title of ‘Nightingale of India’ from Mahatma Gandhi.
• In 1917 she helped in the formation of the Women’s Indian Association (WIA).
• Sarojini Naidu took part in the Salt March with Mahatma Gandhi and was arrested by the British authorities along with all the Congress leaders in 1930.
• Sarojini Naidu was one of the significant figures to have led the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Quit India Movement.
• Sarojini Naidu passed away on March 2, 1949, on account of Cardiac Arrest.

The correct answer is Ram Naik.

• ​RamNaik was sworn in as Governor on 22 July 2014 at Ramnaik Raj Bhavan.
• RamNaik was the 24th Governor of Uttar Pradesh. His term is till 29 July 2019.
• Subsequently, he also held the additional charge of Governor of Rajasthan for a brief period from 8th Aug. 2014 to 3rd Sept. 2014.
• Shri Naik was felicitated with the 'National Eminence Award' in Mumbai on 13th December 2014 by Pujyasri Jayendra Saraswati Swamigal of His Holiness Jagadguru Sankaracharya of Kanchi Kamakoti Peetam.
• The previous awardees included former Prime Minister Bharat Ratna late Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee, former Presidents late Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma, and Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, etc.
• Shri Naik was the Cabinet Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas in the Government led by late Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee from 13th October 1999 to 13th May 2004.

• After Independence, the first governor of Uttar Pradesh was Sarojini Naidu.
• According to Article 153, Each state in the country will have a governor.
• According to Article 155, the Governor is appointed by the President.
• Part-6 of the Indian Constitution deals with an important part of the federal structure of the country i.e. the states.
• Articles 152 to 237 of the Constitution refer to various provisions relating to states.

The Correct Answer is ​amending the Constitution.

• According to the provisions of Article 312, the Parliament can create a new all India service, if a resolution to that effect in the national interest is passed by the council of states (Rajya Sabha). Hence Rajya Sabha has more power over the creation of the new All India Service. Hence Option 1 is Not Correct.
• Article 75(3) of the Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• Hence, in this regard, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha. Hence Option 3 is Not Correct.
• Every Cut Motion to a demand for Grant represents disapproval of some aspect or other of the Budget or the economic policy of the Government. 
• The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations with regards to the cut motion. Hence Statement 4 is Also Not Correct.

• Article 368 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to amend the constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in article 368.
• A bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional Amendment Bill. Hence Option 2 is Correct.

The correct answer is ​Article 137.

• Article 137 of the Constitution is a special power with the Supreme Court to review any judgment pronounced or order made by the Parliament.
• The scope of the article is that the Court has the power to review its rulings to correct a “patent error” and not “minor mistakes of inconsequential import.
• A Review Petition has to be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order.
• When a review takes place, the Court will not take fresh stock of the case but just correct grave errors that have resulted in the miscarriage of justice.
• As per the Civil Procedure Code and the Supreme Court Rules, any person aggrieved by judgment can seek a review.

The correct answer is Article 124.

• Article 124 is related to the establishment and Constitution of the Supreme Court.
• The constitution and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are stated in detail from articles 124-147.
  • There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.

The correct answer is Assam.

• In 2016, in Assam, Bhartiya Janata Party formed the government for the first time.
• The Assam Legislative Assembly Election of 2016 was held in two phases on 4 and 11 April 2016.
• It was done to elect members of the 126 constituencies.
• The overall voter turnout was 84.72%, which set a new record for Assam.
• The counting of votes & result was declared on 19 May 2016.
• Indian National Congress (INC), lost its majority to the Bharatiya Janata Party which was led by Sarbananda Sonowal.

The correct answer is State List.

• The state List currently has 61 items initially there were 66 items included in this list.

• Article 249 of the Constitution provides Parliament with the power to make laws on the subjects which are included in the State List in order to protect and promote the national interests.
• The subjects mentioned in the State List are exclusively legislated by the State Legislatures under natural circumstances.

 The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 shifted five subjects from State list to Concurrent List:

1. Protection of birds and wild animals
2. Forests
3. Education 
4. Matters related to Weights and measures and
5. Administration of constitution and organisation of all courts across the country except the Supreme Court and the High Courts and matters pertaining to justice.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• Article 32. Remedies for enforcement of rights conferred by Part III

1. The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part-III is guaranteed.
2. The Supreme Court shall have the power to issue directions or orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, whichever may be appropriate, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by this Part. Hence statement 1 is correct.
3. Without prejudice to the powers conferred on the Supreme Court by clause (1) and (2), Parliament may by law empower any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court under clause (2)
4. The right guaranteed by this article shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by this Constitution. (Article 359) Hence statement 2 is not correct.

• Habeas Corpus
  • A Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’.
  • It is an order which is issued by the court to a person who has detained another person to produces the body of the latter before it.
  • The court then examines the cause and the legality of the detention.
  • It is the only writ that can be issued both against public authorities as well as private individuals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Mandamus 
  • It literally means ‘we command’.
  • It is issued by the court to the public official asking him to perform the official duties that he has failed or refused to perform.
• Prohibition
  • It means ‘to forbid’
  • It is issued by the higher court to the lower court or the tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess.
• Certiorari
  • It means ‘to be certified’ or sometimes ‘to be informed’.
  • It is issued by a higher court to the lower court or the tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to squash the order of the latter is the case.
• Quo-Warranto
  • It means ‘by what authority or warrants’.
  • It is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of the claim of the person to the public office.
  • It prevents an illegal usurpation of the public office by the person.

The correct answer is President of India.

• As per Article 143, the President has the power to address questions to the Supreme Court, which he deems important for public welfare.
• The Supreme Court “advises” the President by answering the query put before it.
• Article 143 of the Constitution confers Advisory Jurisdiction to the Supreme Court of India.

• Article 143: Power of President to consult Supreme Court.
  1. If at any time it appears to the President that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of such a nature and such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.
  2. The President may, notwithstanding anything in the proviso to article 131, refer a dispute of the kind mentioned in the said proviso to the Supreme Court for opinion and the Supreme Court shall, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report to the President its opinion thereon.

The correct answer is East Delhi.

• Gautam Gambhir had won the East Delhi Lok Sabha constituency seat.
• He had defeated Congress candidate Arvinder Singh Lovely by 3,91,222 votes.
• BJP alone fetched 302 seats out of 541 Lok Sabha seats and formed the government for the second time.

• South Delhi - Ramesh Bidhuri of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the 2019 Lok Sabha Elections beat Raghav Chadha of the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) by receiving 56.58% of the votes.
• West Delhi - Parvesh Sahib Singh Verma of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in the 2019 Lok Sabha Elections beat Mahabal Mishra of the Indian National Congress (INC) by receiving 60.05% of the votes.

The correct answer is BN Rau.

• BN Rau was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly.

• Sir Benegal Narsing Rau was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat, and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India.
  • He was also India's representative to the United Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952.
  • He was also a member of the Korean War post-Armistice United Nations Command Military Armistice Commission (UNCMAC).
  • He was responsible for the general structure of its democratic framework of the Constitution and prepared its initial draft in February 1948.
  • He also assisted in drafting the early Constitution of Myanmar, or Burma
  • He also served as a judge of the International Court of Justice at The Hague.

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was independent India's first Minister of Law and Justice.
  • He was an Indian jurist, economist, politician, and social reformer, who inspired the Dalit Buddhist movement and campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables.
  • He was considered the chief architect of the Constitution of India. He was given Bharat Ratna in 1990. He was born on 14^th April 1891 in Mhow, Indore. He was the first Indian to pursue a doctorate in economics abroad. He was passed away on 6^th December 1956.
• Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India.
  • His tenure was from 1950 to 1962.
  • Rajendra Prasad was elected as President of the Constituent Assembly of India, which prepared the Constitution of India and served as its provisional parliament.
• Tiruvellore Thattai Krishnamachari was the Indian Finance Minister from 1956–1958 and from 1964–1966.
  • He was also deputy viceroy from 1947-1950.
  • He was a founding member of the first Governing Body of NCAER (National Council of Applied Economic Research).

The Correct Answer is Seventeenth Lok Sabha.

• As of May 2020, Om Birla is the speaker of the Seventeenth Lok Sabha.
• He is elected as the Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha on 19 June 2019.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer and the highest authority of the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India.
• The speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections.

• Sumitra Mahajan was elected as  Speaker of the 16th Lok Sabha remained in office until the day before the first sitting of the 17th Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is 2020-2025.

• The Government of India has constituted the Fifteenth Finance Commission with 2020-2025 as its operating period.
• The Fifteenth Finance Commission (XVFC) led by Chairman Sh N K Singh, submitted its Report for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to the Hon’ble President of India.

• The Finance Commission in India is constituted by the President.
• The first finance commission was constituted in 1951.
• Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
• It functions as a quasi-judicial body.
• The finance commission is appointed every five years.
• The President lays the reports of the Finance commission before both the Houses of the Parliament.
• The finance commission recommends to the President relating to the distribution of the net taxes to be shared between the centre and the states.
• The finance commission consists of a Chairman and four members.

• Article 280 of the Constitution deals with Finance Commission.
• The first chairman of Finance Commission - K.C Neogy.
• The Chairman of 15th Finance Commission - Nand Kishore Singh.
• Members of 15th Finance Commission - Ashok Lahiri, Ajay Narayan Jha, Anoop Singh and Ramesh Chand.
• The 15th Finance Commission has released a report titled ‘Finance Commission in COVID Times’ on 1st February 2021.
• The financial year runs from 1st April to 31st March next year.
• Finance Secretary - Ajay Bhushan Pandey
• Article 360 - Financial Emergency
• No Financial Emergency has been declared so far in India.

The correct answer is 5 years.

• The Vice-President:
  • Vice-President is indirectly elected by means of a single transferable vote.
  • He holds his office for 5 years.
  • State Legislatures do not take part in the election of Vice-President.
  • Electoral College of Vice-President consists of elected and nominated members of both the Houses of Parliament.
  • All disputes regarding the election of Vice- President are adjudicated by the Supreme Court.
  • In case a member of the Legislature is elected Vice-President, he shall be deemed to have vacated his seat in the House to which he belongs.

• Qualifications:
  • To be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfil the following qualifications:
  • He should be a citizen of India.
  • He should have completed 35 years of age.
  • He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

  • He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• Vice President Shall be Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Vice President shall act as President in case of any occurrence of vacancy due to death, resignation or removal.
  • Vice President can also act as President when the President is unable to discharge his function due to absence or illness.
  • In such a period Vice President will be entitled with all the immunities, powers and privileges of the President.
• Vice President shall be elected by an Electoral college through a system of Proportional Representation by means of Single Transferable Vote and the voting should be by secret ballot.
  • The electoral college consists of members of both houses of the Parliament. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Vice President shall not be a member of any house of the Parliament. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Qualification for Vice President:
  • he must be a citizen of India.
  • completed the age of 35 years.
  • qualified for election as a member of the Council of States.
  • must not hold the office of profit.
• Vice President can hold the office for a term of 5 years.
  • He can resign addressed to President.
  • He can be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of states passed by the Majority of all the members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People for which 14 day notice period is required.
• Vice President continue to hold his office until his successor comes. 
• The election for Vice President must be conducted before the expiration of the Term.
  • In case of death, resignation or removal it should be conducted as soon as possible.

The correct answer is 6 months.

• The Vice President acts as President in the absence of the president due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
  • He can act as a president only for a maximum period of 6 months within which a new president has to be elected.

• Part V of the Constitution of India under Chapter I (Executive) also discusses the office of the Vice-President of India.
• Article 63 of the Indian Constitution states that - "There shall be a Vice President of India.
• Articles 63-73 describe the post, requirement, election, removal, etc of Vice President of India.

• Venkaiah Naidu is the current Vice President of India.
  • He defeated UPA's candidate Gopalkrishna Gandhi in the 5 August 2017 election.
• The first vice president of India, Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, took oath at Rashtrapati Bhavan on 13 May 1952.

The correct answer is Venkaiah Naidu.

• Current Vice-President of India is Venkaiah Naidu. (Nov 2020)
• He was elected as the 13th Vice-President of India.

• Important articles of Vice President:
  • ARTICLE 63: There shall be a Vice-President of India.
  • ARTICLE 64: The Vice-President shall be ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
  • ARTICLE 65: The Vice-President shall act as President in the event of the occurrence of any vacancy in the office of the President by reason of this death, resignation or removal, or otherwise.
  • ARTICLE 66: Election of Vice President.
  • ARTICLE 93: There will Lok Sabha speaker and deputy speaker of the house.

The correct answer is The Governor can dissolve the Legislative Assembly of a State.

• The correct statement is The Governor can dissolve the Legislative Assembly of a State.
• The Head of the State is the Governor. She/He is appointed by the Central Government to ensure that the State Government works within the rules and regulations of the Constitution. 
• After the elections, it is the Governor of the state who appoints the chief minister and other ministers.
• The Governor is appointed by the central government and therefore, the actions of the Governor are often viewed as interference by the Central government in the functioning of the State government. 

• Sarojini Naidu was the first female governor of India, she was the governor of Uttar Pradesh from 1947 to 1949.

The correct answer is '​सेवार्थ कटिबद्धता.'

•  '​सेवार्थ कटिबद्धता' means 'Committed to serve'.
• The modern-day Rajasthan Police was formed in 1951.
• It is headquartered in Jaipur.
• The Rajasthan Public Service Commission conducts the recruitment for various posts in the Rajasthan Police.
• Rajasthan Police consists of 15 battalions. Of these, 12 are in Rajasthan, and the rest in Delhi. Given below is the list along with its headquarters:

1. 1st Battalion – Jodhpur
2. 2nd Battalion – Kota
3. 3rd Battalion – Bikaner
4. 4th Battalion – Jaipur
5. 5th Battalion – Jaipur
6. 6th Battalion – Dholpur
7. 7th Battalion – Bharatpur
8. 8th Battalion – Delhi
9. 9th Battalion – Tonk
10. 10th Battalion – Bikaner
11. 11th Battalion – Delhi
12. 12th Battalion – Delhi
13. 13th Battalion – Jail Security
14. 14th Battalion – Bharatpur

• A special battalion called, 'Hadi Rani Mahila Battalion' for women constables is headquartered in Rajasthan.

The correct answer is 24.

• Article 24 prohibits child labour.
  • It mandates that No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.

• Article 31 states that no person shall be deprived of his/her property, except by authority of law.
  • It is also mentioned that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes.
  • Article 31 with the subheading “Right to Property” has been omitted by the Constitution Forty-Fourth Amendment Act 1978.
  • Article 31(1) has been shifted to article 300A as a new insertion in Chapter IV in part XII of the constitution.
• Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability in any form.
  • According to the provision of Article 17, “enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability” is a punishable offence in accordance with the law.
• Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to every individual.
  • It states that "No person shall be deprived of his life and personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.

The correct answer is Uniform civil code.

• Article 44 Uniform civil code is not a Socialistic Principle.
• Uniform civil code is the liberal principle.

• Indian Constitution has not originally classified DPSPs but on the basis of their content and direction, they are usually classified into three types- 
• DPSP – Socialistic Principles
  • They are the principles that aim at providing social and economic justice and set the path towards the welfare state. Under various articles, they direct the state to:
  • Article 38 Promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order through justice—social, economic and political—and minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities
  • Article 39
    • Secure citizens: Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens
    • Equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good
    • Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production
    • Equal pay for equal work for men and women
    • Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse
    • Opportunities for the healthy development of children
  • Article 39A Promote equal justice and free legal aid to the poor
  • Article 41 In cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, secure citizens:
    •  Right to work
    • Right to education
    • Right to public assistance, 
  • Article 42 makes provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
  • Article 43 Secure a living wage, a decent standard of living and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.
  • Article 43A Take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • Article 47 Raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and improve public health.
• DPSP – Gandhian Principles
  • These principles are based on the Gandhian ideology used to represent the programme of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. Under various articles, they direct the state to:
  • Article 40 Organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government
  • Article 43 Promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas
  • Article 43B Promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of cooperative societies
  • Article 46 Promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and to protect them from social injustice and exploitation
  • Article 47 Prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health.
  • Article 48 Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle and improve their breeds.
• DPSP – Liberal-Intellectual Principles
  •  These principles reflect the ideology of liberalism. Under various articles, they direct the state to:
  • Article 44 Secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
  • Article 45 Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
  • Article 48 Organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines
  • Article 49 Protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance
  • Article 50 Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
  • Article 51
    • Promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations
    • Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations
    • Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

The correct answer is a - IV, b - III, c - II, d - I.

The table below is correctly matched:

• Article 111 in India’s Constitution governs the Veto powers of the President. It states that “When a Bill has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, it shall be presented to the President, and the President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill, or reject or return for re-consideration.
• Types of Veto power  
• Absolute Veto – Withholding of assent to the Bill passed by the legislature.
• Qualified Veto – Which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority. (Not in India, It's in the US)
• Suspensive Veto – Which can be overridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
• Pocket Veto – Taking no action on the Bill passed by the legislature.

• Suspensive Veto of the President
  • President uses his suspensive veto when he returns the bill to the Indian Parliament for its reconsideration.
  • If the Parliament resends the bill with or without amendment to the Indian President, he has to approve the bill without using any of his veto powers.
  • His suspensive veto can be over-ridden by the repassage of the bill by the Indian Parliament
  • With respect to state bills, the state legislature has no power to override the suspensive veto of the President.
  • Governor can withhold the bill for the President’s consideration and even if the state legislature resends the bill to the governor and governor to President, he still can withhold his assent.
  • When the Parliament resends the bill to the President, it has to follow only the ordinary majority.
  • President cannot exercise his suspensive veto in relation to Money Bill.
• Pocket Veto of the President
  • The bill is kept pending by the President for an indefinite period when he exercises his pocket veto.
  • He neither rejects the bill nor returns the bill for reconsideration.
  • Constitution does not give any time limit to President within which he has to act upon the bill.
  • Therefore, the President uses his pocket veto where he doesn’t have to act upon the bill.
  • Unlike the American President who has to resend the bill within 10 days, the Indian President has no such time rule.
  • In 1986, President Zail Singh exercised this pocket veto.
• Absolute Veto of the President
  •  When the President exercises his absolute veto, a bill never sees the day of the light.
  • The bill ends even after being passed by the Indian Parliament and does not become an act.
  • President uses his absolute veto in the following two cases:
    • When the bill passed by the Parliament is a Private Member Bill.
    • When the cabinet resigns before President could give his assent to the bill. The new cabinet may advise the President to not give his assent to the bill passed by the old cabinet.
  • In 1954, it was exercised by Dr. Rajendra Prasad as a President and later in 1991, it was used by the then President R Venkataraman. 

The correct answer is Both a and b.

• In Britain, the Prime Minister should definitely be a member of the House of Commons.
• In India, a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister.
• Hence both the statements are correct.

• President of India appoints a person as the Prime Minister who is either the leader of the party which holds a majority of seats in the Lok Sabha or is a person who is able to win the confidence of the Lok Sabha by gaining the support of other political parties.
• All other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• To become an Indian prime minister one has to be
  • A citizen of India.
  • A member of either Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha.
  • He should have completed his 30 years if he is a member of the Rajya Sabha or can be 25 years of age if he is a member of the Lok Sabha.
• Relationship between Prime Minister and the President
  • Article 74 mentions how the Prime Minister and President are both connected with the council of ministers. The Council with PM as head advise President on various issues.
  • Article 75 mentions three things:
    • President appoints PM and other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the PM.
    • Ministers hold their office during the pleasure of the President.
    • The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 78 PM communicates all decisions made by the council of members to the President. President can also refer issues for the consideration of the council of members.

The correct answer is Disputes between different units of the Indian Union.

• The Supreme Court of India has Original, Appellate, and Advisory jurisdiction.
• Original Jurisdiction:
• As per Article 32, Supreme Court is the guardian/protector of fundamental right and any person whose fundamental rights are violated can directly approach the Supreme Court for a remedy and any matter regarding the enforcement of fundamental rights comes under the original jurisdiction of the supreme court.
  • The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in a matter related between any dispute - 
    • Government of India vs and one or more states 
    • Government of India and states on one side and states on another side 
    • States vs states 

• Appellate Jurisdiction:
  • ​Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal from all courts in the territory of India.
  • Article 134 provides the Supreme Court with appellate jurisdiction in the criminal matters from any judgment, final order, or sentence of the high court.
• Advisory Jurisdiction:
  • Article 143 (Power of President to consult supreme court)
  • If the President feels that a question of law or fact has arisen or is likely to arise and the question is of such a nature of such public importance that it is expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme Court is free to advise the President but such an opinion is not binding on the President.

The correct answer is Elphinstone College, Mumbai.

• October 1852, Naoroji appointed as acting professor of Mathematics and natural philosophy at the Elphinstone Institution, upon the departure of the previous professor, John Patton, due to severe illness.
• 1854, Naoroji appointed as full professor of mathematics and natural philosophy at Elphinstone Institution.
• Poverty and UnBritish Rule, a compilation of Naoroji’s writings from the past thirty years, published.

The correct answer is United Nations.

• The United Nations is not associated to Bretton Woods institutions.
• The Bretton Woods Institutions were set up at a meeting of 43 countries in Bretton Woods, New Hampshire, USA in July 1944.
• Their aims were to help rebuild the shattered post-war economy and to promote international economic cooperation.
• The goal of the meeting was to establish a framework for economic cooperation and development that would lead to a more stable and prosperous global economy.
• WTO, IMF, and World Bank are Bretton Woods institutions.
• Under the Bretton Woods System, gold was the basis for the U.S. dollar and other currencies were pegged to the U.S. dollar’s value.
• The Bretton Woods System effectively came to an end in the early 1970s when President Richard M. Nixon announced that the U.S. would no longer exchange gold for U.S. currency. 
• The IMF and World Bank collaborate on a routine basis and at many levels to assist member countries, including joint participation in several initiatives.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• Notification, on OCI card-holders published in March 2021 has provided the following provisions:
  • Grant of a multiple-entry life-long visa for visiting India for any purpose.
  • Special permission is required to:
    • undertake any research; 
    • undertake any missionary or mountaineering or journalistic activities;
    • undertake internships in any foreign diplomatic missions; and 
    • visit any place that falls within the so-called protected or restricted or prohibited areas.
    • Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Purchase or sale of immovable properties other than agricultural land or farmhouse or plantation property. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Pursuing the following professions: doctors, dentists, nurses, and pharmacists, advocates, architects, and chartered accountants.
    • Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Other provisions:

• Exemption from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Officer for any length of stay in India. 
• OCI card-holders will enjoy parity with Indian nationals in the matters of tariffs in airfares in domestic sectors in India, and entry fees to be charged for visiting sites.
• The concept of OCI was brought through the Citizenship Act, 1955.
• The government of India launched the Overseas Citizenship of India Scheme in 2005.
• On 9 January 2015, the GOI merged the Persons of Indian Origin card scheme with the OCI card scheme.
• Provisions related to Indian Citizenship are mentioned in Article 5-11, Part - II^nd of the Indian Constitution. 

The correct answer is the Chief Justice of India.

• The Chief Justice of India conducts the Oath of Office for the President of India.

• Article 60: Oath and Affirmation of the President.
  • The oath of the President is administered by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the seniormost Judge of the Supreme Court. 
• The Electoral College for the president consists of:
  • The elected members of both Houses of Parliament;
  • The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states; and
  • The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories of Delhi and Pondicherry (now Puducherry).
• Qualification of the President:
  • Under Article 58, a person to be eligible for election as President should fulfill the following qualifications:
  • He should be a citizen of India.
  • He should have completed 35 years of age.
  • He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • He should not hold any office of profit under the Union Government or any State Government or any local authority or any other public authority.

• The President conducts the Oath of Office for the Prime Minister of India.
• The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President.
• The President conducts the Oath of Office for the Vice President of India.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2. 

In News -

• The Supreme Court has agreed to examine a plea to frame uniform guidelines on divorce, maintenance and alimony for all religions.
• A petition was filed in the court that argued divorce, maintenance and alimony laws in certain religions discriminated and marginalised women.

• Status of Personal Law in India:
  • Personal law subjects like marriage, divorce, inheritance come under Concurrent list. Hence, Statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • Hindu personal laws have been by and large secularized and modernized by statutory enactments (The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955).
  • On the other hand, Muslim personal laws are still primarily unmodified and traditional in their content and approach (Eg: Shariat law of 1937).
  • Apart from it, Christians and Jews are also governed by different personal laws. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.

• Article 142 provide(s) a unique power to the Supreme Court, to do “complete justice” between the parties, i.e., where at times law or statute may not provide a remedy, the Court can extend itself to put a quietus to a dispute in a manner which would befit the facts of the case.

The correct answer is the President.

• A Judge of the Supreme Court may resign from his office by writing to the President.
• Other provision includes; as per Article-124(4) of the Constitution, the President can remove the judge on proved misbehaviour or incapacity, based on a special majority of the Parliament.
• A Judge of the Supreme Court shall hold office until he attains the age of 65 years.

The correct answer is Ireland.

​

• The nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the President was borrowed by the constitution of India from Ireland.
• Indian President nominates 12 persons having special knowledge in various fields.
• 12 members are nominated by the President from amongst person having special knowledge or practical experience in:
  • Arts.
  • Literature.
  • Science.
  • Social service.

• The constitution of India has borrowed most of its features from the constitutions of various other countries in the world.
• More than half of the provisions of the Indian constitution are identical to the Government of India act 1935.
• Important provisions borrowed from Ireland are:
  • Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha.
  • Presidential election.

• Important provisions borrowed from the Government of India act 1935 are:
  • Office of the governor.
  • Federal court.
  • Public Service Commissions.
  • Emergency provisions.
• Important provisions borrowed from Canada are:
  • Federation with a strong Centre
  • Residuary powers.
  • Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Important provisions borrowed from Russia are:
  • Fundamental duties
  • Five-year plans.

The correct answer is Meerut.

• Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel University of Agriculture and Technology (SVPUAT) is an agricultural university at Meerut in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh.

• The University was set up on 2nd October 2000 under Uttar Pradesh Agriculture University Act (revised) 1958.
•  SVPUAT is recognized and funded by U.P. Govt. & ICAR, Govt. of India. It is incorporated in the list of recognized Universities maintained by the University Grants Commission (UGC), Govt. of India.

• Meerut is an education centre of Western Uttar Pradesh having a total of 4 universities, more than 50 engineering colleges, 27 other colleges and institutions.
• SVPUAT has provision for the education of the rural people of Uttar Pradesh for study in different branches, particularly agriculture, rural industry and business, and other allied subjects.
• It aims to promote the prosecution of research, particularly in agriculture and other allied sciences and undertaking field and extension programmes.

The correct answer is B.

• The word 'cooperative' means 'working together'.
• This means that individuals who want to work together for the same economic purpose can form a committee. This is called a 'cooperative society'.
• No member of the cooperative works for 'personal profit'.
• All its members collect their resources and make maximum use of them, which they share among themselves.
• The primary purpose of a cooperative society is to "serve its members".
• A member has the right to vote "only one vote" irrespective of the number of shares he has.

Part III of the Constitution provides for legal remedies for the protection of these rights against their violation by the State or other institutions/individuals.

• It entitles the citizens of India to move the Supreme Court or High Courts for the enforcement of these rights.
• The State is forbidden from making any law that may conflict with the Fundamental Rights.

​ Article 32 provides the right to Constitutional remedies which means that a person has the right to move to Supreme Court (and high courts also) for getting his fundamental rights protected.

• While Supreme Court has the power to issue writs under article 32, High Courts have been given the same powers under article 226.
• Further, the power to issue writs can also be extended to any other courts (including local courts) by Parliament via making a law for local limits of the jurisdiction of such courts.

Thus, it is clear that the Right to Constitutional Remedies is mentioned in Article 32 of the constitution.