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351.

The Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament for transacting a legislative business is presided over by1. The President of India2. The senior most Member of Parliament3. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

The correct answer is The speaker of the Lok Sabha.

  • The joint sitting of the Indian Parliament for transacting a legislative business is presided over by The speaker of the Lok sabha.
  • The joint sitting is called by the President.
  • In his absence of the speaker of the Lok sabha, the sitting is presided over by the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • The quorum to constitute a joint sitting: 1/10th of the total number of members of the House.
  • A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament of the Indian Constitution given in Article 108. 

 

 

Speaker of Lok Sabha
  • The speaker of Lok Sabha is a member who elected from amongst the members of the house. He chairs the house and no proceedings in the house take place in his absence.
  • 1st Lok Sabha Speaker – Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar 
  •  17th Lok Sabha elections (2019 General Elections), Om Birla is the speaker of Lok Sabha.
352.

In which place of Madhya Pradesh is the headquarters of the State Forensic Science Laboratories situated?1. Rewa2. Hoshangabad3. Sagar4. Ratlam

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Sagar

The correct answer is Sagar.

 

  • The headquarters of Madhya Pradesh State Forensic Science Laboratories is situated at Sagar.
    • Sagar is known as the Switzerland of Madhya Pradesh.
    • Sagar was founded in the year 1660 by the ruler Udenshah.
    • Sagar served as the capital of the Indian Kingdom of Chedi.
    • The Sagar University(Dr. Hari Singh Gour University) founded on 18 July 1946 is one of the famous universities in India.

 

  • The Directorate of Forensic Science Services was created in the year 2002.
    • It was created by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    • There are six central forensic science laboratories in India:
      • Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Chandigarh.
      • Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Bhopal.
      • Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Kolkata.
      • Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Pune.
      • Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Hyderabad.
      • Central Forensic Science Laboratory, Guwahati.
353.

Which one of the following statements about 'Judicial Review' is not correct ?1. The Constitution of India does not clearly describe the system of Judicial Review.2. Judicial Review in India is governed by the principle 'procedure established by law'.3. Judicial Review cannot be applied in respect of laws incorporated in the 9th Schedule of the Constitution.4. The Parliament cannot pass laws and amendments for overriding the hurdles created by Judicial Review.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : The Parliament cannot pass laws and amendments for overriding the hurdles created by Judicial Review. 

The Correct Answer is The Parliament cannot pass laws and amendments for overriding the hurdles created by Judicial Review

  • The Judicial Review will make Parliament irresponsible because it may decide to rely on the Supreme Court to assess the constitutionality/reasonability of a law passed by it.
    • The Indian Constitution does not explicitly define the Judicial Review system.
  • It stands on the basis of many Constitutional articles.
  • Judicial review is described by critics as an undemocratic procedure.
    • It allows the court to determine the fate of the laws enacted by the legislature, which constitute the people's sovereign will.
  • The Judicial Review mechanism is viewed by many critics as a reactionary system.
    • A cause of delay and inefficiency is the Judicial Review.
  • In terms of implementing a rule, individuals in general and law-enforcement agencies in particular often decide to go slow or keep their fingers crossed. 
354.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below1. A and B2. B, C, D3. C and D4. A, B, C

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : C and D
The Correct answer is C and D.

  • Panchayati Raj is the foundation of India's political system, as a decentralized form of government in which each village would be responsible for its own affairs.
  • This vision was incorporated in the constitution through Article 40 (DPSP) which read 'the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government'. This provision of the Directive Principles was finally given constitutional sanctity by enacting 73rd Amendment 1992.
  • Thus, the 73rd Amendment Act did not bring any amendments to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
  • The provisions of the 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution titled - The Panchayats covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O). It also added a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of the Panchayats. However, no changes were made in the Part-III(Fundamental Rights) or Part-IVA(Fundamental Duties) of the constitution. Hence, only options C and D are correct
  • Part XIII deals with trade and commerce within India. No amendments were brought in it through the 73rd Amendment Act.
355.

Which are the Constitutional Amendments related to De-centralisation of Democracy?1. 73rd and 74th Amendment2. 42nd and 43rd Amendment3. 45th and 46th amendment4. 75th and 76th amendment

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 73rd and 74th Amendment
The Correct answer is 73rd and 74th Amendments.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:
    • This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India.
    • This part is entitled ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O.
    • In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.
    • This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats, It deals with Article 243-G.
    • The act has given a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution which says that “The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.” 
    • The Act gives constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions.
    • It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
    • The provisions of the act can be grouped into two categories compulsory and voluntary.
    • The act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroots democratic institutions in the country.
    • It transfers representative democracy into participatory democracy.
    • It is a revolutionary concept to build democracy at the grassroots level in the country.
  • 74th Constitutional Amendment Act:
    • This Act has added a new Part IX-A to the Constitution of India.
    • This part is entitled ‘The Municipalities’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243- P to 243-ZG.
    • In addition, the act has also added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution.
    • This schedule contains eighteen functional items of municipalities, It deals with Article 243-W.
    • The act gave constitutional status to the municipalities.
    • It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution.
    • The act aims at revitalising and strengthening the urban governments so that they function effectively as units of local government.
    • The act established three types of municipalities in every state:
      • A Nagar Panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area, that is an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area.
      • A municipal council for a smaller urban area.
      • A municipal corporation for a larger urban area
356.

At the time of appointment of the Prime Minister of India1. It is not necessary that he should be a member of one of the two houses of Parliament, but he must become a member of either house within six months.2. It is not necessary that he should be a member of one of the two houses of Parliament, but he should become a member of Lok Sabha within six months.3. Must be a member of one of the two Houses of Parliament.4. Must be a member of Lok Sabha.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : It is not necessary that he should be a member of one of the two houses of Parliament, but he must become a member of either house within six months.

Prime Minister: 

  • In the scheme of the parliamentary system of government provided by the constitution, the President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority (de facto executive).
  • In other words, the president is the head of the State while Prime Minister is the head of the government. 

Appointment of the prime minister:

  • The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. 
  • Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint anyone as the Prime Minister. 
  • In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.
  • But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.
  • In such a situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
  • Prime Minister has to either be a Member of Parliament (i.e. either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) at the time of his appointment or become one within six months from his appointment. He does not have to be a member of the Lok Sabha only.

Thus, option 1 is correct.

357.

Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Chief Minister.1. The Constitution does not contain specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.2. According to the Constitution, the Chief Minister should be selected from the Lower House.Which of the above statements is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 or 2

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1 only

The correct answer is 1 only

  • The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
  • According to the Constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a state legislature. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Usually Chief Ministers have been selected from the Lower House (legislative assembly), but, on a number of occasions, a member of the Upper House (legislative council) has also been appointed as Chief Minister.

  • A leader of the party that has got the majority share of votes in the assembly elections, is appointed as the Chief Minister of the state.
  • When no party gets a majority in the elections, governor exercises his own discretion and appoint a Chief Minister accordingly.
  • In a case where no party has won the majority votes, Governor appoints the member of the largest party or one from the coalition (if occurs) as the Chief Minister and then he is given 1 month time to prove confidence in the house.
  • If the incumbent dies in the office, Governor at his own discretion can appoint a Chief Minister however, the ruling party nominates a member and Governor usually appoints that person as the Chief Minister. This person then has to prove confidence within a specified time.
  • A person not belonging to either house (Legislative Assembly & Council) can also be appointed as the Chief Minister, however, within six months of his tenure as a CM he should be elected to either house without which he ceases to be a CM.
358.

The definition of ‘money bills’ is given in which article of the Constitution of India?1. Article 442. Article 1103. Article 934. Article 33

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Article 110
The correct answer is Article 110.
  • The definition of "Money Bill" is given in Article 110 of The Constitution of India. 
  • Money bills are concerned with financial matters like taxation, public expenditure, etc.
  • The bill is significant for Indian Polity and governance as many important issues like Aadhar Bill, Insolvency, and Bankruptcy Bill are also related to it.
  • Money Bill is always introduced in the House of People [only on the recommendation of the President] and it needs to certified as Money Bill by the Speaker while it is being presented to the President for his assent and transmitted to Council of States.
 
Article 44
Article 44 corresponds with Directive Principles of State Policy stating that the State shall endeavor to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code (UCC) throughout the territory of India.
Article 93
Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
Article 33
Article 33 deals with the power of parliament to modify fundamental rights.
359.

The Chief Minister of a state, at the time of his/her appointment:1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of  the State Legislature but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the State Legislature but must become a member of the State Legislative Assembly within six months.3. must be a member of one of the Houses of the State Legislature.4. must be a member of the State Legislature.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of  the State Legislature but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.

The correct answer is need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the State Legislature but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months.

  • The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
    • Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
    • However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint anyone as the Chief Minister.
    • In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister.
    • But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
    • In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
    • The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister.
    • The governor may first appoint him as the Chief Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly within a reasonable period.

  • A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister. Hence, option 1 is correct.
  • According to the Constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a state legislature.
  • Usually, Chief Ministers have been selected from the Lower House (legislative assembly), but, on a number of occasions, a member of the Upper House (legislative council) has also been appointed as Chief Minister. 
360.

Which of the following divisions was created by splitting the Bhopal division in the year 2008?1. Sagar2. Narmadapuram3. Shahdol4. Rewa

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Narmadapuram

The correct answer is Narmadapuram.

  • On 27 August 2008, the Bhopal division was divided into two divisions- Bhopal and Narmadapuram
    • Bhopal division comprised of Bhopal, Raisen, Rajgarh, Sehore, and Vidisha districts.
    • Narmadapuram division comprised of Hoshangabad, Harda, and Betul districts
    • Shahdol division was created on 14 June 2008 by splitting off areas from Rewa and Jabalpur.

  • Madhya Pradesh has 51 districts grouped into 10 divisions:
  1. Bhopal
  2. Gwalior
  3. Sagar 
  4. Jabalpur
  5. Indore
  6. Chambal
  7. Ujjain
  8. Shahdol
  9. Narmadapuram
  10. Rewa
361.

Which article in the constitution of India talks about money bills?1. Article 722. Article 1103. Article 1134. Article 114

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Article 110

The correct answer is Article 110.

  • In the Indian Constitution, Article 110 deals with Money Bill in India.
  • There are few provisions for a bill to be deemed as a money bill.

  • The provisions that make a bill a money bill in India are given below:
    • The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
    • The regulation on borrowing money by the Union government.
    • The custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the contingency fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.
    • The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
    • Declaration of any expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or increasing the amount of any such expenditure.
    • The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money, or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a state.
362.

Article 32 belongs to which part of the Indian Constitution?1. Part II2. Part I3. Part III4. Part IV

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Part III

The correct answer is Part III.

  • Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court to seek justice.
  • Under Article 32, the parliament can also entrust any other court to exercise the power of the Supreme Court, provided that it is within its Jurisdiction.
  • Article 32 is for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • The nature of Writ Jurisdiction provided under this Article is discretionary.
  • There are five types of Writs as provided under Article 32 of the Constitution:
    • Habeas Corpus.
    • Quo Warranto.
    • Mandamus.
    • Certiorari.
    • Prohibition.

Part of ConstitutionSubject MatterArticles
Part IUnion and its Territory1 to 4
Part IICitizenship5 to 11
Part IIIFundamental Rights12 to 35
Part IVDirective Principles of State Policy36 to 51
363.

Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018?1. The Bill makes specific provisions related to giving of bribes is now an offence.2. The Bill amends various provision of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.3. The Bill incorporates the recommendations given by the 21st Law Commission headed by Justice B.S. Chauhan.4. By making citizens liable for offering a bribe to a public servant, the anti-corruption law has been brought to line with UN Convention Against Corruption.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : The Bill incorporates the recommendations given by the 21st Law Commission headed by Justice B.S. Chauhan.

The correct answer is option 3.

  • Prevention of Corruption Bill, 2018, sought to amend the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
  • The major concern in the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 was that the person giving a bribe was legally proclaimed as a victim.
  • The Bill incorporates the recommendations given by the 20th Law Commission headed by Justice (retd) AP Shah in its 254th Report. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
  • The key features of the bill are-
    • The Bill makes bribing a punishable offence.
    • It redefines provisions related to criminal misconduct.
    • To conduct an investigation into an offence, it is mandatory to take prior approval of relevant Government or competent authority. 

  • In 2005, the UN Convention against Corruption provided for domestic rules and treatment to curb corruption.
  • It provides guidelines for enterprises to combat bribery.
  • 4th report of the 2nd Administration Reform Commission deals with concerns and solutions on the issue of corruption.
364.

Consider the following statements:1. The office of Chief Justice of India comes under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act.2. The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.Which of the above statements is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

  • 12 October 2020 marks 15 years since the implementation of the Right to Information Act (RTI) 2005.
  • The Central Information Commission was established by the Central Government in 2005.
  • It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a constitutional body.
  • The Central Information Commission is a high-powered independent body that inter alia looks into the complaints made to it and decides the appeals.
  • The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner shall hold office for such term as prescribed by the Central Government or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The Chief Information Commissioner shall not be eligible for reappointment
  • It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the Central Government and the Union Territories.
  • It sets out the rules and procedures regarding citizens' Right to information.
    • It replaced the former Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
    • This act was enacted in order to consolidate the fundamental right in the Indian constitution 'freedom of speech.
    • Since RTI is implicit in the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution, it is an implied fundamental right.
  • Supreme Court of India in 2019, upheld the decision of the Delhi High Court bringing the office of Chief Justice of India under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Currently, Political parties are not under the ambit of the RTI act.
365.

World Health Day 2020 was celebrated on ______ with the theme of supporting nurses and midwives.1. March 72. April 73. March 94. April 9

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : April 7

The correct answer is April 7

The day marks the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) and aims to draw attention to important health issues facing the world each year.

  • WHO, or the World Health Organization, is a working body under the UN which aims to address issues and emergencies pertaining to health on a global scale.
  • Theme 2020: Support nurses and midwives.
  • This day is observed to spread information about equal healthcare facilities worldwide and aware people on the importance of Health and Wellness and to kill myths around Health.
  • This day is sponsored by WHO.

  • WHO Headquarter- Geneva, Switzerland 
  • Founded: 7 April 1948
  • DG: Tedros Adhanom
366.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Rajya Sabha?1. Twelve of its members are nominated by the President.2. It has powers that protect the rights of states against the union.3. It is the upper house of the Parliament of India.4. It can amend a money bill.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : It can amend a money bill.

The correct answer is It can amend a money bill.

  • The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India.
    • Rajya Sabha is also known as the house of elders.
    • Rajya Sabha is constituted under Article 80 of the Indian constitution.
    • Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
    • It has powers that protect the rights of states against the union.
  • Among its 245 members, 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes through Open Ballot while the remaining 12 members are appointed by the President for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
  • One-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every two years.
  • Rajya Sabha represents the federal character of the constitution.
  • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • Current Chairman (Dec-2020) of the Rajya Sabha: Venkaiah Naidu.
  • Current Deputy Chairman (Dec-2020): Harivansh Narayan Singh.

  • The maximum strength of the Rajyasabha is fixed at 250. So if the question asked 'Maximum Strength', the answer would be 250.
  • Rajya Sabha currently has a maximum membership of 245.

 Types of Bill- There are four types of bills in our Constitution:

  • Ordinary billOrdinary bill is a bill that can be introduced in either of the houses by any minister or member of the house. 
  • Money bill- Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lower Chamber of Indian Parliament(Lok Sabha) which generally covers the issue of receipt and spending of money, such as tax laws, laws governing borrowing, and expenditure of the Government. 
  • Finance billFinance Bill is a secret bill introduced every year in Lok Sabha(Lower chamber of the Parliament) immediately after the presentation of the Union Budget, to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India
  • Constitutional amendment bills- Bills seeking to amend all other provisions of the Constitution including those enumerated in the provision to article 368(2), are called by the title 'Constitution Amendment Bills'. These Bills can be introduced in the House of Parliament.
367.

Which of the following organizations of United Nations (UN) related with education?1. UNICEF2. UNESCO3. UNO4. UNSC

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : UNESCO

UNESCO was set up by the United Nations and its headquarter is situated in Paris. UNICEF provides humanitarian assistance to children and women.

UNESCO(United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation) is one of the agencies of the United Nations which deals with education internationally.

  • It was established in the year 1946.
  • Its main objective is to assist students in the field of education, science, and culture.
  • It makes aware people of different techniques and methods of farming, boost the cultural exchange between students and teachers, and provides teacher training in various fields.
  • It promotes literacy in the world.
  • It also highlights the need for preserving the natural environment along with the conservation of world heritage sites.

From the above, it is clear that UNESCO is an organization of the United Nations (UN) that is related to education.

368.

Right to property is now1. fundamental right2. legal right3. economic right4. None of the above

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : legal right

According to the Right to Property, a citizen can hold, acquire and dispose of any land or property. It is one of the valuable constitutional rights of a citizen.

Initially, the right to property was a fundamental right of a citizen to acquire, possess and maintain a property. Later, the government stated that the property could be taken by the government for public welfare.

  • In 1978, the 44th Amendment Act 1978 of the constitution of India removed the right to property from the fundamental rights and a new article, 300 A was created defining the right to property as a legal right.
  • Article, 300A states that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law".
  • The government cannot forcibly acquire any property without any legal procedure.
  • The government provides profits to those citizens whose property are taken for the general welfare.
  • The Right to Property gives an individual the opportunity to hold it, sell it and rent it.

Thus, it is clear that the Right to property is now a legal right.

369.

Who is the Chief Executive Head of a State?1. Chief Minister2. Governor3. Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha4. None of them

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Governor

The executive is the branch of government that implements the laws and takes policy decisions. The executive at the state level consists of the Governor, the Council of Ministers, and the Chief Minister.

Governor:

  • The Governor is the executive head of the state and he exercises all the executive actions of the state.
  • The president appoints the Governor for a period of 5 years.
  • The Governor appoints the Chief Minister, Council of Ministers, and government officials.
  • He has the power to summon and dissolve the state legislative assembly.
  • He appoints the judges of the court and has the power to grant pardons or reduce the judicial punishments.
  • During the president's rule, the Governor runs the state on behalf of the president.

Thus, it is clear that the Governor is the Chief Executive Head of a State.

  • The state government consists of three branches- the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary.
  • The legislature makes the law of a state, the executive implements it and the judiciary ensures their protection.
  • President's rule is imposed when no political party has any majority in the state assembly.
370.

Who can dissolve the Rajya Sabha?1. President2. Prime Minister3. Speaker4. None of them

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : None of them

The Parliament is divided into two parts- Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

  • Rajya Sabha is the upper house that represents the states of India in the Parliament where members are elected by the state assemblies.

Rajya Sabha:

  • The Vice-President of India is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • It consists of 233 elected members and 12 nominated members by the President. It is referred to as the Council of States.
  • It is a permanent house.
  • The members of Rajya sabha are representatives of every state.
  • One-third of the members retire after two years and new members are elected in their place.
  • Usually, the tenure of a selected member is two, and six years,
  • The Rajya Sabha is not subjected to any dissolution.

  • Dissolution means the end of a parliament which generally takes place ahead of the election.
  • The Lok Sabha is subjected to dissolution.
371.

Who appoints the Council of Ministers of a State?1. President2. Chief Minister3. Governor4. None of them

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Governor

At the State level, the Council of Ministers is the executive body of the state that assists the Governor in the administration.

The Council of Ministers consists of the Chief Minister and other ministers.

  • The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor while the other members of the council are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
  • The Council of Ministers takes the policy decisions and advises the Governor on important issues.
  • The council submits bills to the Assembly and initiates them.
  • It gives directions to partner states and institutions of the community.
  • It considers the budget of the community.
  • It controls the finance of the state.
  • It makes the rules and regulations for the staff.
  • It submits the annual progress reports and makes the agenda of the meetings.
  • It establishes the Sectorial Committees.

Thus, it is clear that the Governor appoints the Council of Ministers of a State. 

372.

Finance Commission is constituted1. Every year2. Once in four years3. Once in two years4. Once in five years

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Once in five years

The correct answer is Once every five years.

Finance Commission is constituted once in every five years.

  • The Finance Commissions are commissions constituted by the President of India under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The First Commission was established in 1951 under The Finance Commission Act, 1951.
  • Fifteen Finance Commissions have been constituted since the promulgation of the Indian Constitution in 1950.
  • The Finance Commission was established in 1951 by Dr B.R. Ambedkar, the then-incumbent law minister.
  • Article 280 of the Indian Constitution defines the scope of the commission: The President will constitute a finance commission within two years from the commencement of the Constitution and thereafter at the end of every fifth year or earlier.

  • The most recent was constituted in 2017 and is chaired by N. K.Singh, a former member of the Planning Commission.
  • Important Functions of Commissions include :
    • Distribution of 'net proceeds' of taxes between Center and the States, to be divided as per their respective contributions to the taxes.
373.

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President:1. at the expiration of every sixth year2. at the expiration of every tenth year3. at the expiration of every seventh year4. at the expiration of every fifth year

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : at the expiration of every fifth year

The correct answer is at the expiration of every fifth year.

  • The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States and amongst the States themselves.
  • Finance Commission is a constitutional body for the purpose of allocation of certain revenue resources between the Union and the State Governments.
  • It was established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution by the Indian President.
  • It was created to define the financial relations between the Centre and the states.
  • It was formed in 1951.
  • Shri Ajay Narayan Jha recently joined the Fifteenth Finance Commission as its member.
  • The 15th Finance Commission has released a report titled ‘Finance Commission in COVID Times’ on 1st February 2021. 
374.

Consider the following statementsi. Haryana State was formed on the recommendation of Sardar Hukum Singh Parliamentary Committeeii. Shah commission was set up under the Chairmanship of Justice J. C. Shah to divide and set up the boundaries of Punjab and Haryana Stateiii. On 1st Nov 1966, Haryana as the seventeenth state of India came into existenceWhich of the above statement is/are correct1. i and ii only2. ii and iii only3. i and iii only4. All of the above

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above.

  • The state of Haryana was formed on November 1, 1966, on the recommendations of the Sardar Hukum Singh Parliamentary Committee that was constituted on September 23, 1965. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Central government then formed the Shah Commission to set the boundaries of Punjab and Haryana. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Shah Commission on 23 April 1966 under the chairmanship of Justice J. C. Shah was set up.
  • The commission gave its report on 31 May 1966. Afterwards, Haryana came into existence on 1 November 1966 as the seventeenth state of India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
375.

The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of certain persons. Who among the following is/are not part of that committee?A. The Prime MinisterB. The Home MinisterC. Leader of the Opposition party in the Lok SabhaD. Leader of the Opposition party in the Rajya SabhaE. The Speaker of the Lok SabhaF. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 1. Only B2. Only B and D3. Only E and F4. Only F

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Only F

The correct answer is Only F.

  • The Chairperson and Members of the Commission are appointed by the President on the basis of recommendations of a Committee comprising:
    • The Prime Minister as the Chairperson,
    • The Speaker of Lok Sabha, 
    • The Home Minister,
    • The leaders of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
    • The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha as Members. 

  • NHRC is a multi-member body that consists of a Chairman and seven other members.
  • Out of the seven members, three are ex-officio members.
  • Mr. Justice H.L. Dattu completed his tenure as the seventh Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission, NHRC, India today on 2nd December 2020. 

​​

  • National Human Rights Commission:
    • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October 1993.
    • The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006.
    • It is in conformity with the Paris Principles, adopted at the first international workshop on national institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights held in Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations.
    • It was given a statutory basis by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (PHRA).
376.

Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee for the Draft National Education Policy, which was approved by the Union Cabinet in 2020?1. RS Sarkaria2. Madan Mohan Punchhi3. K Kasturirangan4. Dharmendra Pradhan

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : K Kasturirangan

The correct answer is K Kasturirangan.

  • K Kasturirangan is a former chairman of ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization).
  • The National Education Policy 2020 which was approved by the Union Cabinet of India on 29 July 2020, outlines the vision of India's new education system. 
  • The new policy replaces the previous National Policy on Education, 1986.
  • Important Highlights of National Education Policy 2020.
    • Universalization of early childhood care education.
    • National mission on foundational literacy and numeracy.
    • 5+3+3+4 curricular and pedagogical structure.
    • Curriculum to integrate 21st-century skills, mathematical thinking, and scientific temper.
    • No rigid separation between art and science, curricular and extra-curricular activities, between vocational and academic streams.
    • Education of gifted children.
    • Gender inclusion fund.
    • Reduction in the curriculum to core concepts.
    • Vocational Integration from class 6 onwards. 

  • RS Sarkaria was the chairman of the Sarkaria Commission that was set up in June 1983 to examine the relationship and balance of power between state and central governments.
  • Madan Mohan Punchhi was the chairman of the Punchhi Commission that was set up in 2007 to look into new issues of Centre-State relations.
  • Dharmendra Pradhan is the Cabinet Minister for Petroleum and Natural Gas and Steel in the Government of India.
377.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct in the context of Lokayukta?1. Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization in the Indian states.2. The retired judge of Supreme court, Mr. I. D. Dua became the first Lokayukta of Rajasthan.3. Governor of the state appoints the Lokayukta and its deputy.4. Tenure of Lokayukta is not fixed and work as the Ombudsman of government.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Tenure of Lokayukta is not fixed and work as the Ombudsman of government.

The tenure of Lokayukta is not fixed and work as the Ombudsman of government is NOT correct.

  • Lokayukta:
    • He or she is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization in the Indian states.
    • On the recommendation of the Rajasthan Administrative Reforms Commission (1973), on 25 August 1973, Lokayukta in Rajasthan was appointed.
    • The retired judge of the Supreme court, Mr I. D. Dua became the first Lokayukta of Rajasthan
    • Lokayukta organisation can only recommend but cannot take any actions. 
    • The Governor of the state appoints the Lokayukta and its deputy.
      • Governor has to consult the Chief Justice of the High court and the leader of the opposition. 
    • The tenure of Lokayukta is fixed. They hold office for 5 years or up to the age of 65 years. Hence option 4 is incorrect.
    • They cannot be re-appointed.

  • Recently, Justice Sajjan Singh Kothari was the Lokayukta of Rajasthan. He was a former judge of the Rajasthan High Court. 
  • Currently, Honorable Justice Shri Pratap Krishna Lohra is the Lokayukta of Rajasthan.
378.

Choose the correct answer:The appointment of Lokayukta at the state level was first recommended by1. Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee2. Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966 - 70)3. Second Administrative Reforms Commission4. Santhanam Committee

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966 - 70)

The correct answer is Administrative Reforms Commission of India (1966 - 70).

  • The anti-corruption ombudsman (Lokayukta at State level and Lokpal at Central level) both at the center and the states were first conceptualized by the First Administrative Reforms Commission of India headed by Morarji Desai
  • The report published by First Administrative Reforms Commission in 1966 recommended the creation of two independent authorities i.e. the Lokpal at the center and the Lokayuktas in the states to look into complaints against public functionaries, including Members of Parliament as well.

  • The Lokpal Act:
    • The formal establishment of Lokpal and Lokayukta took place with the passing of the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, by the Parliament of India in December 2013. 
    • Structure of Lokayukta: The structure of the Lokayukta is not the same in all the states.
      • Some states like Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra have created the Lokayukta as well as Uplokayukta.
      • Some others like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Himachal Pradesh have created only the Lokayukta.
      • States like Punjab and Orissa have designated officials as Lokpal.
    • Appointment of Lokayukta: They are appointed by the governor of the state.
      • While appointing, the governor in most of the states consults:
        • Chief justice of the state high court, and
        • Leader of Opposition in the state legislative assembly.
    • Tenure: In most of the states, the term of office fixed for Lokayukta is of 5 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier. He is not eligible for reappointment for a second term.
    • Removal: Once appointed, Lokayukta cannot be dismissed nor transferred by the government, and can only be removed by passing an impeachment motion by the state assembly.
  • Maharashtra was the first state to introduce the institution of Lokayukta in 1971.
  • The term Lokpal and Lokayukta was first coined by L.M Singhvi in 1963.

  • Second Administrative Reforms Commission, 2005 was set up to inquire and to prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the public administration system and for the elimination of corruption in the administration and the strengthening of the Lokpal and the Lokayukta.
    • Chairman:- Veerappa Moily.
  • Santhanam Committee:-The Committee on Prevention of Corruption appointed by the Government of India in 1962.
    • Chairman:- K. Santhanam
    • Recommendations:-  Creation of the Central Vigilance Commission. Also, administrative vigilance divisions in all departments and major organizations of the Government.
  • Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee was set up in July 1962 by the Government of Rajasthan, to recommends measures to bring about reforms in the administration of the state and to improve the working efficiency of government offices. 
    • Chairman:- Shri Harish Chandra Mathur.
379.

Who is the current Chief Election Commissioner of India?1. Navin Chawla2. S.Y. Quraishi3. Naseem Ahmad4. Nasim Zaidi

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Nasim Zaidi

The correct answer is Nasim Zaidi.

  • Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi served as the 20th Chief Election Commissioner of India (19 April 2015 to 5 July 2017).
  • Sunil Arora is the current (23rd) Chief Election Commissioner of India (from 2 December 2018).

No.NameTerm of office
1Sukumar Sen21 March 1950 - 19 December 1958
16Navin Chawla21 April 2009 - 29 July 2010
17S.Y. Quraishi30 July 2010 - 10 June 2012
22Om Prakash Rawat23 January 2018 - 1 December 2018
  • Naseem Ahmad is the current chairperson of the National Commission for Minorities.
380.

Which of the following is incorrect about the National Human Rights Commission?1. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission must be a Retired Judge of the Supreme Court.2. The Chairperson and members of the NHRC are appointed on the recommendation of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in both houses of Parliament and the Lok Sabha Speaker.1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is 2 only.

  • The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019:
    • The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr Amit Shah, on July 8, 2019.
    • The Bill amends the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. 
    • The Act provides for a National Human Rights Commission (NHRC), State Human Rights Commissions (SHRC), as well as Human Rights Courts.
  • Composition of NHRC:
    • Under the Act, the chairperson of the NHRC is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. 
    • The Bill amends this to provide that a person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, or a Judge of the Supreme Court will be the chairperson of the NHRC. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
    • The Act provides for two persons having knowledge of human rights to be appointed as members of the NHRC.
    • The Bill amends this to allow three members to be appointed, of which at least one will be a woman. 
    • Under the Act, chairpersons of various commissions such as the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and National Commission for Women are members of the NHRC. 
    • The Bill provides for including the chairpersons of the National Commission for Backward Classes, the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights, and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as members of the NHRC
    • The Chairperson and members of the NHRC are appointed on the recommendation of a committee consisting of  Prime Minister, Home Minister, Leader of Opposition in both houses of Parliament, Lok Sabha Speaker, and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

  • Under the Act, the chairperson of the NHRC is a person who has been a Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. 
  • The Bill amends this to provide that a person who has been Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, or a Judge of the Supreme Court will be the chairperson of the NHRC. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect​.
381.

Who is the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?1. Former President2. Former Chief Justice3. Current President4. Current Chief Justice

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Former Chief Justice

The correct answer is Former Chief Justice.

  • The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is always a Former Chief Justice of India.
  • Justice Shri H.L. Dattu, former Chief Justice of India joined as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India on the 29th February 2016.
  • He is the seventh Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission. 
  • On the 28th of September 2014, he was appointed the Chief Justice of India and retired on the 2nd of December 2015.
  • Justice Dattu headed the bench that acquitted 11 persons charged under terror laws telling the Gujarat police that no innocent person should be branded a terrorist.

  • Number of Members in the National Human Rights Commission - The National Commission shall consist of not less than four members and not more than eleven members and at least one of them shall be a woman.
  • The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is a Statutory public body constituted on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993.
  • The Headquarters of the National Human Rights Commission is Sardar Patel Bhawan, New Delhi, India.
382.

According to the Indian Constitution, what is the term of the Legislative Assembly of the State of Jammu and Kashmir?1. 5 years2. 6 years3. 4 years4. 3 years

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 6 years

The correct answer is 6 years.

  • Members of the Legislative Assembly were elected for a six-year term up to 2019 and a five-year term thereafter.
  • The seats are filled by direct election from single-member constituencies using the first past the post method. 
  • The assembly may be dissolved before the completion of the full term by the Lieutenant Governor upon the advice of the Chief Minister.
  • The Lieutenant Governor may also convene special sessions of the legislative assembly.

  • According to the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act 2019, the state of Jammu and Kashmir was divided into two union territories - 'Jammu and Kashmir' and 'Ladakh'.
  • On 5 August 2019, Home Minister Amit Shah announced in the Rajya Sabha (upper house of the Indian Parliament) that the President of India had issued The Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 2019 under Article 370, superseding the Constitution.
  • Article 370 of the Constitution of India was a 'temporary provision' inserted on 17 October 1949.

  • Lt. Governor & Administrator of Jammu and Kashmir - Shri Manoj Sinha.
  • Lt. Governor & Administrator of Ladakh - Shri Radha Krishna Mathur.
383.

Consider the following statements.1. At present, postal ballots are allowed for certain categories of voters living in India.2. Election Commission of India (ECI) is the deciding authority to permit NRIs to cast their votes from overseas through postal ballots.3. For allowing voting rights to NRIs, amendments were done to Representation of the People Act 1950.Which of the above statements is/are correct?1. 1 and 22. 2 and 3 3. 1 and 34. 1, 2 and 3

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : 1 and 3

The correct answer is 1 and 3.

In News -

  • Recently the Election Commission (EC) approached the Law Ministry to permit NRIs to cast their votes from overseas through postal ballots. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.

  • At present, postal ballots are allowed for certain categories of voters living in India. The new proposal is for overseas voters. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • What is the current process of voting for Indian citizens living abroad?
    • An NRI can vote in the constituency in which her place of residence, as mentioned in the passport, is located.
    • She can only vote in person and will have to produce her passport in original at the polling station for establishing identity.
    • Voting rights for NRIs were introduced only in 2011, through an amendment to the Representation of the People Act 1950. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
384.

Select the correct answer:State Election Commission of Rajasthan1. a statutory authority2. an executive authority3. a constitutional authority4. a unit of Electron Commission of India

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : a constitutional authority

The correct answer is a constitutional authority.

  • The State Election Commission is the Constitutional body responsible for conducting and supervising elections to the local bodies in the State.
  • The State Election Commission of Rajasthan was constituted in July 1994 under Article 243K of the Constitution of India.
  • The State Election Commission of Rajasthan is a single member Committee headed by the State Election Commissioner.
  • It has a Secretary who is also the Chief Electoral Officer for the State.
  • The Commission discharges its Constitutional duty by way of preparing electoral rolls and holding elections for Panchayati Raj Institutions as well as for Municipal bodies.
  • Elections to Panchayati Raj Institutions are being held in Rajasthan since 1960. The first election was conducted in 1960 by the Panchayat Department.
  • Elections to Municipal bodies are being held in Rajasthan since 1960 by the local self department.
  • Anand Kumar, IAS is the present Chief Electoral Officer for the Rajasthan State.

  • There are basically two types of bodies,
    • Constitutional Bodies - Those bodies which are mentioned in the constitution of India are known as Constitutional Bodies, For example, Finance commission (Article 280), Election Commission (Article 324), UPSC & SPSC (Article 315).
    • Extra Constitutional Bodies - Those bodies which are not mentioned in the constitution of India but are established by our parliament. 
      • They are further divided into two categories,
        • Statutory Bodies - Those bodies are made by law through the parliament, and they are autonomous in their function, such as CBI, SSC, NHRC, SEBI etc.
        • Non-Statutory Bodies - Those bodies which run through cabinet resolutions are known as Non-Statutory Bodies. For example, NITI Aayog, NDC etc.
385.

Consider the following provisions regarding special provisions related to financial Bills.1. A Bill or amendment making provision for any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of Article 110 shall not be introduced in either house of the Parliament or moved except on the recommendation of the President.2. A Presidential recommendation shall also be required under this clause for the moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax.Which of the above statements is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 1 only

The correct answer is 1 only​.

Article 17: Special provisions as to financial Bills

  • A Bill or amendment making provision for any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of Article 110 shall not be introduced or moved except on the recommendation of the President. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • A Bill making such provision shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
  • Provided that no recommendation shall be required under this clause for the moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • A Bill or amendment shall not be deemed to make provision for any of the matters aforesaid by reason only that it provides
    • for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties,
    • the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered,
    • by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes.
  • A Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India shall not be passed by either House of Parliament unless the President has recommended to that House the consideration of the Bill.
386.

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act received the assent of the President in_________.1. 20142. 20133. 20154. 2012

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : 2014

The correct answer is 2014.

  • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act received the assent of the President in 2014.
  • Lokayukta is an anti-corruption ombudsman organization in the Indian states.
  • Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority constituted at the centre.
  • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013 with amendments in parliament.

  • It was introduced in the Parliament following the Jan Lokpal movement led by Anna Hazare in 2011
    • It was passed by Rajya Sabha on 17th December 2013.
    • It was passed by Lok Sabha on 18th December 2013.
    • The act received the assent of the President on the 1st of January 2014.
    • The Act came into force on 16th January 2014.
  • The First Chairperson of the Lokpal is Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose.
387.

In 2019, who became the first Lokpal of India?1. Pinaki Chandra Ghose2. T.S. Thakur3. Rajinder Sachchar4. Rajinder Singh

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Pinaki Chandra Ghose

The correct answer is Pinaki Chandra Ghose.

  • Pinaki Chandra Ghose is currently the Lokpal of India since 23rd March 2019.
    • He is a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India.
    • Pinaki Chandra Ghose is son of Late Shri Justice Sambhu Chandra Ghose, former Chief Justice of Calcutta High Court.
    • A lokpal is an anti-corruption authority or body of ombudsman who represent the public interest in the Republic of India.
    • The Lokpal has jurisdiction over central government to inquire into allegations of corruption against its public functionaries and for matters connected to corruption.
    • The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013 with amendments in parliament, following the Jan Lokpal movement led by Anna Hazare in 2011.
    • The Lokpal is responsible for enquiring into corruption charges at the national level while the Lokayukta performs the same function at the state level.

  • Justice T. S. Thakur was the 43rd Chief Justice of India.
    • His tenure was from 3rd December 2015 to 4th January 2017.
  • Rajinder Sachchar was an Indian lawyer and a former Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court.
388.

Which of the following is not Member of the Selection Committee for Lokpal?1. Prime Minister2. Speaker of the lower house3. Leader of the opposition of the upper house4. Chief Justice of India

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Leader of the opposition of the upper house

The correct answer is Leader of the opposition of the upper house.

  • Leader of the opposition of the upper house is not Member of the Selection Committee for Lokpal.

  • The Selection Committee for the Lokpal
    • The Selection Committee for the Lokpal shall comprise of:
      • The Prime Minister (Chief Minister in state case)
      • Speaker of the Lower House
      • Leaders of the Opposition of the Lower House 
      • The Chief Justice of India (Chief Justice of the High Court) or a judge of the Supreme Court nominated by hiM
      • An eminent jurist nominated by the President (Governor)
      • The Bill makes it mandatory for the Selection Committee to constitute a search committee of at least seven members. 
      • At least 50% of the members shall be from among SC, ST, OBC, women or minority communities.
      • The Selection Committee may consider a candidate other than one recommended by the Search Committee.   

​​

  • The Lokpal Act of 2013:
    • The Act allows setting up of anti-corruption ombudsman called Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayukta at the State-level.
  • Composition: 
    • The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and eight members.
    • Four of the judicial members have been former Chief Justices of different High Courts 
    • The four non-judicial members have been from All India Services/Central Services.
  • First Chairperson of the Lokpal:
    • Shri Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose, who is a former Judge of Supreme Court of India and was a sitting member of the National Human Rights Commission.
389.

Who among the following is not a member of the selection committee for selecting Chief Information Commissioner?1. President2. Prime Minister3. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha4. Cabinet Minister nominated by PM

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : President

The correct answer is President.

  • Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.

  • Hence, the President is not a member of this committee.

390.

Which Article of the Indian Constitution describes the provisions related to financial emergency?A. Article 148B. Article 143C. Article 360D. Article 721. C2. A3. B4. D

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : C

The correct answer is C.

  • Article 360 of the Indian Constitution describes the provisions related to financial emergencies.
  • According to Article 360- "If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, he may by a Proclamation make a declaration to that effect".

  • The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India.
  • The document lays down the framework that demarcates the fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens
  • The Constitution of India was last amended on 25 January 2020 (104th).

ArticleDetails
Article 148Article 148 - Comptroller and Auditor-General of India There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Article 143

Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers upon the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction. Article 143 Power of President to consult Supreme Court.

Firstly, the President may obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact that has arisen or likely to arise.

Article 72Article 72 Constitution of India: Power of President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.

 

 

391.

Assertion (A): Financial bills can be introduced only in the Lower House (Lok Sabha).Reason (R): Lower House (Lok Sabha) is directly elected by the people.1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A3. A is true but R is false4. A is false but R is true

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

  • Financial bills are those bills that deal with fiscal matters, that is, revenue or expenditure.
  • Financial bills are of three kinds:
    •  Money bills–Article 110
    •  Financial bills (I)–Article 117 (1)
    •  Financial bills (II)–Article 117 (3)
  • This classification implies that money bills are simply a species of financial bills.
  • Article 117 deals with the special provisions as to financial Bills. 
    • A Bill or amendment making provision for any of  the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f) of clause (1) of Article 110 shall not be introduced or moved  except on the recommendation of the President and a Bill making such provision shall not be introduced in the Council of States
  • It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. Hence (A) is correct.
  • It can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
  • The representatives of states and UTs in the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people. Hence (R) is also correct.

Hence, Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

392.

According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental right?A. Right to freedomB. Right to liveC. Right to equalityD. Right to protect the country1. C2. B3. D4. A

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : D

The Correct Answer is Right to Protect Country.

  • The right to protect the country is not a Fundamental Right.

  • The Fundamental Rights have been described in Articles 12-35, Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Constitution itself classifies the Fundamental Rights under seven groups as follows:

    • Right to equality.
    • Right to particular freedoms.
    • Right against exploitation.
    • Right to freedom of religion.
    • Cultural and educational rights.
    • Right to constitutional remedies.
  • Some of the fundamental rights are granted only to citizens-(i) Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste. sex or place of birth (Art. 15);  (ii) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Art. 16];  (iii) Freedoms of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession [Art. 19];  (iv) Cultural and educational rights of minorities [Art. 29 and 30]

 

  • The Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Act,1978. 
    • By the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, it is made a normal constitutional right under Act 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.
393.

The Speaker of Lok Sabha submits his resignation to __________.1. the Oldest person of Lok Sabha2. the Deputy Speaker3. the Leader of the Opposition Party4. the Leader of the Ruling Party

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : the Deputy Speaker

The correct answer is the Deputy Speaker.

  • The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the Lower House of the Parliament of India.
  • The Speaker is elected generally in the first meeting of the Lok Sabha following general elections.
  • In the absence of the Speaker of Lok Sabha, the Deputy speaker will work in place of him.
  • The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
  • Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in the office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha.
  • In the absence of a Deputy speaker also, any member of the panel of Chairpersons of Lok Sabha can preside over the House.
  • The Deputy speaker will give his resignation to the Speaker and vice versa.

  • The current Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha is Mr. Om Birla.
394.

The Indian Constitution mandates that the Indian state be secular. According to the Constitution, the Indian state can realize its objectives by following-1. that one religious community does not dominate another.2. the state does not enforce any particular religion.Which among the above is/are correct?1. 1 only2. 2 only3. Both 1 and 24. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Both 1 and 2

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

  • The Indian Constitution mandates that the Indian state be secular.
  • According to the Constitution, only a secular state can realize its objectives to ensure the following :-
    • that one religious community does not dominate another
    • that some members do not dominate other members of the same religious community
    • that the State does not enforce any particular religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals
  • All statements are correct.

  • As per the constitution, the Indian state is not ruled by a religious group and nor does it support any one religion.
  • Indian state adopts a strategy of noninterference. This means that in order to respect the sentiments of all religions and not interfere with religious practices, the State makes certain exceptions for particular religious communities.
  • The Indian Constitution bans untouchability in order to prevent the religion-based exclusion and discrimination of ‘lower castes’.
395.

How many districts are there in the Union Territory of Ladakh?1. 32. 13. 24. 4

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : 2

The correct answer is 2.

  • The new Union Territory of Ladakh consists of two districts of Kargil and Leh.

  • In 1947, the erstwhile state of J&K had the following 14 districts - Kathua, Jammu, Udhampur, Reasi, Anantnag, Baramulla, Poonch, Mirpur, Muzaffarabad, Leh and Ladakh, Gilgit, Gilgit Wazarat, Chilhas and Tribal Territory.
    • By 2019, the govt of the erstwhile state of Jammu and Kashmir had reorganised the areas of these 14 districts into 28 districts.

  • Ladakh became a Union Territory on the 31st  of October 2019. Ladakh is renowned for its remote mountain beauty and distinct culture.
  • Ladakh is most famous for breathtaking landscapes, crystal clear skies, the highest mountain passes, thrilling adventure activities, Buddhist Monasteries and festivals.
  • Kargil District is the only Muslim-majority district within Ladakh.
    • They traditionally lead a nomadic pastoral life. About 90% of them depend on agriculture based on the Indus River for their livelihood. Barley, wheat, buckwheat, peas, rapeseed and beans are the main agricultural products.
  • Ladakh is a mountainous region and a Union Territory in north India and in the area known as the Trans-Himalaya, (the lands beyond the Himalaya: Tibet, Xinjiang and northern Pakistan).
    • It's slightly smaller than Scotland, the settled population lives between 2700m and 4500m, and nomadic encampments can be found even higher. The people are a mixture of Buddhist and Muslim 50% of each.
    • Buddhists are the majority in the east close to the Chinese border and a slight majority overall while Muslims have the majority in the north and west. Travellers are likely to see more of the Buddhists as the majority of the tourist attractions are in the east and directly related to Tibetan Buddhist culture. 
396.

Identify the newest (as of January 2020) Union Territory of India from among the following.1. Puducherry2. Chandigarh3. Ladakh4. Daman and Diu

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Ladakh

The correct answer is Ladakh.

  • Ladakh, Jammu & Kashmir Are India's Newest Union Territories.
    • The key reforms included the separation of the region of Ladakh and making it a separate “union territory” (UT).
    • A union territory is a type of administrative division in the Republic of India. Unlike the states of India, which have their own governments, union territories are federal territories governed, in part or in whole, by the Central Government of India.

  • Puducherry, also known as Pondicherry, is a union territory of India.
    • It was formed out of four territories of former French India, namely Pondichéry, Karikal, Mahé, and Yanaon, excluding Chandannagar.
    • It is named after the largest district, Puducherry.
    • Historically known as Pondicherry, the territory changed its official name to Puducherry on 20 September 2006.
  • Chandigarh is a city, district, and union territory in India that serves as the capital of the two neighboring states of Punjab and Haryana.
  • Daman and Diu was a union territory in western India.
    • In 2019, legislation was passed to merge the union territory of Daman and Diu with its neighboring union territory, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, to form the new union territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu with effect from 26 January 2020.
    • The merger of these two UTs takes place by the Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu (Merger of Union Territories) Bill, 2019.
    • This bill was passed by the Lok Sabha on 27th November 2019, and by Rajya Sabha on 3rd December 2019.
397.

What is the name of the union territory where French is spoken?1. Daman and Diu2. Pondicherry3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli4. Lakshadweep

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Pondicherry

Pondicherry:

  • The diverse languages in Pondicherry reflect the varied cultural and social lifestyles of the local inhabitants of the Union Territory.
  • The majority of the local inhabitants of Pondicherry converse in the Dravidian languages of Tamil, Telugu, and Malayalam.
  • English and French are spoken mostly by the educated elites of the Union Territory.
  • A vast majority of the indigenous local inhabitants of Pondicherry speak French.
  • Most of the schools in Pondicherry encourage the students to take up French as one of the subjects.
  • Many educational institutions have also introduced French as the first language.
  • Upholding the traditional legacy, most people have retained French as an important language of the Union Territory.
  • The Union Territory of Pondicherry was under French rule for a long time.
  • One can experience the influence of French architecture, social customs, and cultural traditions in every nook and corner of Pondicherry.

Thus, we can say that in the union territory Pondicherry French is spoken.

  • Daman & DiuGujarati was the mother tongue of most of the territory's population, as they belong to the Gujarati-speaking Damaniya sub-caste.
    • Along with Gujarati, Hindi and English are also widely used.
    • Daman and Diu were once part of a combined union territory along with Goa (a Konkani-speaking region) before Goa became a state in 1987.
    • The use of Portuguese, which was the territory's official language during the colonial period, is in decline and relegated to home use.
    • It is also used as a liturgical language by the territory's Catholics.
    • Standard Portuguese exists in a post-creole continuum while Daman and Diu Portuguese are spoken by about 10,000–12,000 people in Daman.
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli- The main Languages of Dadra and Nagar Haveli include Marathi, Gujrati, Bhili, and Bildoli.
  • LakshadweepThe principal languages of Lakshadweep are Malayalam, Jeseri (Dweep Bhasha), and Mahl. The people of all the northern islands speak a dialect of Malayalam with the influence of Arabic similar to Arabi Malayalam.
398.

By which constitutional amendment were the words 'socialist', 'secular' and 'integrity' added in the preamble of Indian Constitution?1. 43rd2. 36th3. 42nd4. 44th

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : 42nd

The correct answer is 42nd.

  • The 42nd Amendment changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "socialist secular democratic republic", and also changed the words "unity of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the nation".
    • Amendment passed during an internal emergency by Indira Gandhi.

  • The 43rd Amendment repealed six articles: 31D, 32A, 131A, 144A, 226A, and 228A.
    • Articles 145, 228, and 366 were amended to facilitate the omission of these six articles.
  • In the 36th Amendment Formation of Sikkim as a State within the Indian Union was constituted.
  • The 44th Amendment provides for human rights safeguards and mechanisms to prevent abuse of executive and legislative authority. Annuls some Amendments enacted in Amendment Bill 42.
    • Amendment passed after the revocation of internal emergency in the Country.
399.

The article of the Constitution provides for a Vice President1. Article 532. Article 3563. Article 3604. Article 63

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 4 : Article 63

The correct answer is Article 63.

  • After the President, the Vice President of India, officially the Vice President of the Republic of India, is India's second-highest constitutional office.
  • "There will be a vice president of India," according to Article 63 of the Indian Constitution. In the event of the president's death, resignation, impeachment, or other circumstances, the vice president takes over as president.
  • Ex officio chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is India's vice president. The vice president determines whether a bill is a financial bill or not when it is introduced in Rajya Sabha.
  • If he believes a bill tabled in the Rajya Sabha is a money bill, he will send the case to the Lok Sabha Speaker for a decision.
  • The election of the Vice President is governed by Article 66 of the Indian Constitution.
  • The vice president is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college made up of members of both Houses of Parliament, using the Single Transferable Vote system and a secret ballot performed by the election commission.
400.

The Finance Commission of India does not make recommendations on ________1. Grant-in-aid from the Consolidated Fund of India.2. Net proceeds distribution between union and state.3. Grant-in-aid from the Contingency Fund of India.4. Any other matter referred to the commission by the President in the interest of sound finance.

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Grant-in-aid from the Contingency Fund of India.

The correct answer is Grant-in-aid from the Contingency Fund of India.

Finance Commission:

  • President constitutes a Finance Commission every 5 years.
  • CompositionChairman and 4 members
  • The qualification of members is determined by the Parliament. 
  • They make recommendations on
  1. net proceeds distribution between union and state.
  2. grant-in-aid from CFI (Consolidated Fund of India). Hence Option 3 is not correct.
  3. Principles and measures needed for augmentation of CFS (Consolidated Fund of State).
  4. Resources to panchayats and municipalities.
  5. Any other matter referred to the commission by President in the interest of sound finance.
  • Procedure and powers are defined by parliament law.

Contingency Fund of India

  • Article 267(1) of the Constitution of India makes provisions for the Contingency Fund of India.
  • The Secretary, Finance Ministry holds this fund on behalf of the President of India.
  • This fund is used to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditure.
  • States to have their own contingency fund.