Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in .

The correct answer is To Punish for the violation of Human Rights.

• The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission is one of the leading State Commissions in the country.
• Suo-Moto Commission can take steps to ensure the implementation of human rights such as
• Intervene in any proceeding involving any allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court to the approval of that court.
• Promote awareness of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights through publications, medical seminars, etc.
• Visit any jail or any other institution under the control of the State Government where persons are detained.
• Review the factors that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights.
• Undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.
• To Punish for the violation of Human Rights is not the function of the State Human Rights Commission.

The correct answer is 12^th April 2017.

• Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an indirect tax used in India on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services in India.
• The president of India gave assent to the Central GST Law on 12^th April 2017.
• It came into effect from 1^st July 2017 in India.
• It substituted all indirect tax on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services throughout India.

• GST was passed as the 101^st Amendment act.
• Assam was the first state to approve the GST bill.
• The approval of 16 states was required for implementing GST.
• Odisha became the 16th state to approve the GST bill.
• The slogan of GST is One Nation, One Tax, One Market.

The correct answer is National Register of Citizens.

The full form of NRC is the National Register of Citizens.

• The National Register of Citizens for Assam is a registry (NRC) maintained by the Government of India for Assam.
• It containing names and certain relevant information for the identification of genuine Indian citizens in the state.
• Currently, the register exists only for Assam.
• However, on 20 November 2019, Home Minister Amit Shah declared during a parliamentary session that the register would be extended to the entire country.
• The register was first prepared after the 1951 Census of India and since then it has not been updated until recently.
• Assam, the North Eastern state of India has become the first state in the country where the updation of the NRC is being taken up to include the names of those persons whose names appeared in the NRC of 1951 and are still alive; and/or of their present living descendants who have a permanent residence within the state.

The correct answer is 3 Years.

• The tenure of the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is 3 years.
• The Act was amended in 2019 and the tenure of the chairman along with members has been reduced to 3 years from 5 years.

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established on 12 October 1993.
• The statute under which it is established is the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA), 1993 as amended by the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006, and again in 2019.

• It conforms with the Paris Principles, adopted at the first international workshop on national institutions for the promotion and protection of human rights held in Paris in October 1991, and endorsed by the General Assembly of the United Nations by its Regulations 48/134 of 20 December 1993.
• The NHRC is an embodiment of India’s concern for the promotion and protection of human rights.
• Section 2(1)(d) of the PHRA defines Human Rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality, and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.

The correct answer is Department of Woman Studies.

• Departments under SIERT, Udaipur:
  • Division of Curriculum, Material Development and Evaluation.
  • Division Educational Surveys, Research(Math and Science) and Policy Perspective.
  • Division of Professional Teacher Education and Foundation.
• Hence, Department of Woman Studies is not under SIERT, Udaipur.

• The State Institute of Educational Research and Training, Rajasthan (S.I.E.R.T.) now RSCERT was established in Udaipur on 11th November 1978 for qualitative upliftment in the area of school education as recommended by Mehrotra Committee set by the Government of Rajasthan.
• Different state-level units were functioning at different places (State Institute of Education, State Institute of Science Education, Evaluation Unit, Educational & Vocational Guidance Bureau ) were brought under one umbrella.

It is a constitutional body is NOT correct.

• Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission:
  • Established in March 2000.
  • This institution deals with human rights issues in the state.
  • The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 provides for the establishment of the National and State Human Rights Commissions.
  • This commission is having one chairperson and two members. 
  • It is an autonomous body with its own method of appointing and its own financial autonomy.

• ​The chairperson and members hold office for a term of 3 years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.

• The Protection of Human Rights Act 1993, an Act of the Parliament, provides for the establishment of the National Human Rights Commission at the national level and State Human Rights Commissions at the state level.
• The Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission is one of the leading State Commissions in the country.
  • The State Government of Rajasthan issued a Notification on January 18, 1999, for the constitution of the State Commission having one full-time Chairperson and 4 Members in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
  • The Commission was fully constituted by the appointment of the Chairperson along with the Members and became functional from March 2000.

•  Justice Mahesh Chandra Sharma is the Acting Chairperson.

The correct answer is Governor/Lieutenant Governor of the concerned state/UT.

• Lokayukta is an anti-corruption authority or ombudsman – an official appointed by the government to represent the interests of the public.
• He investigates allegations of corruption and mal-administration against public servants and is tasked with speedy redressal of public grievances.
• Functions of the Lokayukta:
  • ​Investigating the citizen “grievances” of injustice and hardship caused by maladministration.
  • Inquiry into an allegation of abuse of office, corruption, or lack of integrity against a public servant.
  • Such additional function in relation to the redress of grievances and eradication of corruption as may be specified by the Governor, by notification.
• ​The Lokayukta is usually a former High Court Chief Justice or former Supreme Court judge and has a fixed tenure.

• Selection of Lokayukta: 
  • ​The Chief Minister selects a person as the Lokayukta after consultation with the High Court Chief Justice, the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly, the Chairman of the Legislative Council, Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly, and the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Council.
  • The appointment is then made by the Governor of state or /Lieutenant Governor of the UT.
  • Once appointed, Lokayukta cannot be dismissed nor transferred by the government, and can only be removed by passing an impeachment motion by the state assembly.

The correct match is Option 1.

• SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization.
  • It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organization aiming to maintain peace, security, and stability in the region.
  • Created in 2001.
  • The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2003.
  • The SCO's official languages are Russian and Chinese.
• Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (Quad) is the informal strategic dialogue between India, the USA, Japan, and Australia with a shared objective to ensure and support a “free, open and prosperous” Indo-Pacific region.
• The Association of Southeast Asian Nations is a regional organization that was established to promote political and social stability amid rising tensions among the Asia-Pacific’s post-colonial states. Some of its Objectives are as follows:
  • To accelerate economic growth, social progress, and cultural development for a prosperous and peaceful community of Southeast Asian Nations.
  • To promote regional peace and stability through abiding respect for justice and the rule of law and adherence to the principles of the United Nations Charter.
  • To promote active collaboration and mutual assistance on matters of common interest in the economic, social, cultural, technical, scientific, and administrative fields.
• MAD or Mutual Assured Destruction is a strategic military doctrine in which the use of nuclear weapons on a full scale would theoretically result in the destruction of both the attacker and the defender.
  • This strategy ultimately sends both parties into an endless loop of increased military budgets .

The correct answer is Ganesh Mavlankar.

• Ganesh Mavlankar was the first speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Ganesh Mavlankar is considered as the father of Lok Sabha.
• He was popularly called 'Dada Saheb'.
• He was the Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) and the Provisional Parliament (1947-52).
• He served as the Speaker of the Bombay Legislative Assembly from 1937 to 1946.
• He was the President of the Central Legislative Assembly (1946-47).
• The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952.

• M. A. Ayyangar was the first deputy speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Hukum Singh was the third Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• K. S. Hegde was the seventh Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Bhopal.

• The Centre for Entrepreneurship Development is located in the state capital Bhopal. It was set up in the year 1988. 
• In this institute entrepreneurship skills enhanced with a premium facility. It is an autonomous body and non-profit organization.

• The district was carved out on 13th September 1972. In Bhopal, many tourist spots are there like Van Vihar National Park, Tajul Masjid (Largest Mosque in India), known as "The City of Lakes", Bhimbetka caves (35 km from here).
• In this city, many educational institutions and hospitals are situated NIT, IIFM (Indian Institute of Forest Management), NLU (National Law University), AIIMS, and SPA (School of Planning Architecture).

The correct answer is 1951.

• 9th schedule along with Article 31B was added in 1951 through the first amendment in the Indian Constitution.

• It was introduced to protect land Reform laws. It has about 284 laws.
• These laws were introduced to abolish the zamindari system and introduce the agrarian system into India.
• This schedule contains state and Central law which cannot be challenged in court.

• The first amendment added 13 laws to the schedule and later on, several laws were added from a time period of 1955 to 1991 making the total to 284.
• The most controversial part of this law was the Tamil Nadu law which guarantees 69% reservation in the state. 

The Correct Answer is 1 and 3 only.

• Article 85(1) of the Constitution states that the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. Hence Statement 1 is Correct.
• The session of Lok Sabha is called for at least two times a year.
• Constitution does not state that three sessions of the Parliament should be called in a year. Hence Statement 2 is Not Correct.
• There is no provision of the minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Hence Statement 3 is Correct.

• India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar.
• By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
• The longest, the Budget Session, starts towards the end of January and concludes by the end of April or the first week of May.

The correct answer is 1984.

• In 1984 years was the Family Courts Act enacted.
  • The family courts in India have established India under Section 3 of the Family Courts Act, 1984.
  • The main goal of this act was to establish family courts for secure and speedy settlement of disputes relating to marriage and family affairs.
  • This act contains 6 chapters and 23 sections.
  • The act was enacted with the main aim of establishment of family courts for rapid and safe settlement in the disputes arising in family and marriage and the matters related therewith.
  • The main aim of the Family Courts Act, 1984 was to provide quick and less expensive relief to the parties in a less formal way with the least technicalities.
  • The object of the establishment of these courts was to promote reconciliation between the parties and reach a stage of the agreement.

• Family courts were first established in the United States in 1910 when they were called domestic relations courts.
• According to Section 3 of this act, the State government, after consultation with the High Court shall establish the Family Court in every area of the state where the population is exceeding 1 million or in the area where the State government deem necessary.
• The provisions related to the appointment of judges in the Family court are dealt with under Section 4 of the Family Courts Act, 1984. 

The correct answer is Prime Minister.

• The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), headed by the Prime Minister of India.
• On 23 December 2005, the Government of India enacted the Disaster Management Act, which envisaged the creation of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
• The NDMA may have no more than nine members including a Vice-Chairperson.
• The tenure of the members of the NDMA shall be five years.

Prime Minister usually head/Chairman of several bodies, those are:

• Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions (as Minister of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions)
• Cabinet Secretariat
• Appointments Committee of the Cabinet
• Cabinet Committee on Security
• Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
• NITI Aayog
• Department of Atomic Energy
• Department of Space
• Nuclear Command Authority 

The correct answer is All are correct.

• Article 368: "Parliament may in the exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article."

• 25th Amendment Act, 1971 -  Fundamental Right to Property was curtailed.
• 31st Amendment Act, 1972 - Lok Sabha seats were increased from 525 to 545.
• 61st  Amendment Act, 1989 - The voting age was decreased from 21 to 18.
• Hence, all pairs are correct.

​

• There are three ways in which the Constitution can be amended:-
  • Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament
  • Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament
  • Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures.
• Amendment by a simple majority-
  • Admission or establishment of new states, Formation of new states, Rules of procedure in Parliament, Salaries and Allowances, etc are covered under this.
• Amendment by the special majority-
  • The special majority- a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
  • The provisions which can be amended by this way include (i) Fundamental Rights; (ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and (iii) All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.
• Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures-
  • Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by this.
  • For instance, the election of the president, distribution of legislative powers between union and states, any of the lists in the seventh schedule, etc.

• 25th Amendment Act, 1971 Restrict property rights and compensation in case the state takes over private property. However, the Supreme Court quashed a part of Article 31C, to the extent it took away the power of judicial review.
• This was done in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. the State of Kerala.
• The 44th Amendment Act eliminated the right to acquire, hold and dispose of the property as a fundamental right. However, in another part of the Constitution, Article 300 (A) was inserted to affirm that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.

The correct answer is Article 61.

• The removal of India’s President is done through the process of Impeachment.
• Article 61 of the Indian constitution provides the procedure of impeachment of the President.

• President can be impeached for violation of the Constitution.
• The impeachment can be initiated in any house i.e. Upper house or lower house of the Parliament.
• The charges on the president for impeachment should be signed by one-fourth of members of the House.
• A 14-day prior notice is required to be given to the President.
• The resolution of impeachment must be passed with a majority of two-thirds of both the houses to remove the President from his office.
• The President shall be considered removed from the date on which the resolution is passed in both houses. 

• No president has been impeached so far in India.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and the two houses to be known respectively as the Council of State and the House of the People.
• Council of State shall consist of
  • 12 members to be nominated by the President shall consist of persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of the matters namely literature, science, art, and social service.
  • Not more than 238 representation of the states and the union territories.
  • The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha is to be filled by representatives of the states and the UT as per the Fourth schedule.
  • The representatives of each state shall be elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the state proportional representation using Single Transferable Vote.
  • The representatives of the union territories in the Council of States shall be chosen in such a manner as Parliament may by law prescribe.
• Subject to the provisions of article 331 the House of the People shall consist of
  • Not more than 530 members elected by the direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.
  • There shall be allotted to each state, several seats in the House of the People in such a manner that the ratio between the number and the population of the state, so far as practical, remains the same throughout the state provided that this shall not apply for allotment of seats in the House of the People to any state so long as a population of that state does not exceed 6 Million. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Not more than 20 members to represent the union territory chosen in such a manner as Parliament may by law provide after 31st amendment 1973.
  • For population, 1971 census is referred to first after the 42nd amendment 1976 and then after the 86th amendment 2001 till 2026. 
  • For the division of the state into territorial constituency 2001 census is referred to after the 87th Amendment Act 2003. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Correct answer is Neither A nor B.

• As per Article 243F, no person shall be disqualified on the ground that he is less than twenty-five years of age if he has attained the age of twenty-one years. Hence, a person becomes eligible for contesting the elections to Panchayats and municipalities after he/she has attained the age of twenty-one years. This is in contrast to eligibility for contesting legislative assembly elections and Lok Sabha elections wherein the minimum age required for the candidates is twenty-five years.
  • Hence statement A is not correct.
• A person shall be disqualified for being a member of a Panchayat if he is so disqualified by or under any law for the time being in force for the purposes of elections to the Legislature of the State concerned or if he is so disqualified by or under any law made by the Legislature of the State.
• If any question arises as to whether a member of a Panchayat has become subject to any of the disqualifications, the question shall be referred for the decision of such authority and in such manner as the Legislature of a State may provide.
  • Hence statement B is not correct.

The correct answer is 1964-1966.

• Lal Bahadur Shastri served as 2^ND PM of India from June 09, 1964, to January 11, 1966.
• He was born on October 2, 1904, at Mughalsarai, UP.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri joined the Non-Cooperation Movement at the age of 16 years on the call of Gandhi Ji.
• He gave the slogan - Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan, during the 1965 War.
• He died on 11^TH Jan 1966, after signing the Tashkent agreement to end the Indo-Pak War of 1965.

•  Prime Ministers of India in the following tenure:
  • ​1966-1977 - Indira Gandhi. 
  • 1977-1979 - Morarji Desai.
  • 1980-1984 - Indira Gandhi. 

The correct answer is 2 October 1904.

• He was the second Prime Minister of India.
• He gave the famous slogan "Jai Jawan, Jai Kishan" during the Indo-Pak war 1965.
• He was awarded Bharat Ratna (posthumous) in 1966.

• Lal Bahadur Shastri was born on October 2, 1904, at Mughalsarai, a small railway town seven miles from Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.
• He held the Prime Minister's office from 9 June 1964 to 11 January 1966.
• He supported and promoted the White Revolution and Green Revolution.
• He was the key person in setting up the Food Corporation of India.
• He led India in the India-Pakistan War in 1965.
• He died in Tashkent, Uzbekistan (then the Soviet Union) on 11 January 1966, one day after signing a peace treaty (Tashkent Agreement) to end the 1965 Indo-Pakistan War.

•  Mahatma Gandhi was born on 2nd October 1869 in Porbandar, Gujarat.

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

• Shiv Sena, is a right-wing Marathi regional political party in India founded in 1966 by cartoonist Bal Thackeray.
• Uddhav Thackeray is the youngest child of Bal Thackeray.
• Uddhav Thackeray is the current CM of Maharashtra.

• Saamana is a Marathi newspaper launched in 1988 by Bal Thackeray who was also the editor of the newspaper.
• Its student wing is called Bharatiya Vidyarthi Sena.
• Its women wing is called Shiv Sena Mahila Aghadi.

The Correct Answer is 2 only

• Some provisions pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, etc. came into force on 26th November 1949 itself.
• Indian Constitution provides single citizenship i.e. the only citizen of India (and not states) unlike that of countries like the USA which provides dual citizenship i.e. citizenship of the USA as well as states
• Single Citizenship has been borrowed from the British Constitution.

• Provisions borrowed from Canadian Constitution: Federation with a strong Centre; Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre; Appointment of state governors by the Centre; Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
• Provisions borrowed from the British Constitution: Parliamentary government; Rule of Law; Legislative procedure; Single Citizenship; Cabinet system; Prerogative writs; Parliamentary privileges; Bicameralism

The correct answer is India.

• India is a current non-permanent member of the UN Security Council.

• United Nations Security Council:
  • The United Nations Security Council is one of the six main organs of the UN, and it is primarily responsible for maintaining international peace and security.
  • It consists of 15 members -five permanent members and 10 non-permanent members.
  • The five permanent members are the US, UK, Russia, China, and France.
  • Every year, five non-permanent members are elected for a tenure of two years.
  • To be elected as a non-permanent member of the council, each member-country requires a two-thirds majority of the entire assembly.

• Five permanent members: China, France, Russian Federation, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
• Ten non-permanent members elected for two-year terms by the General Assembly (with the end of term year):
  • Estonia (2021)
  • India (2022)
  • Ireland (2022)
  • Kenya (2022)
  • Mexico (2022)
  • Niger (2021)
  • Norway (2022)
  • Saint Vincent and the Grenadines (2021)
  • Tunisia (2021)
  • Viet Nam (2021)

• India was the sole candidate for a non-permanent seat from the Asia-Pacific category for the 2021-22 term.
• India got 184 out of the 192 valid votes polled and got a seat of non-permanent member of UN Security Council.
• Previously, India had been elected as a non-permanent member of the Council for the years 1950-1951, 1967-1968, 1972-1973, 1977-1978, 1984-1985, 1991-1992, and 2011-2012.
• The subsidiary bodies of the council are known as committees: Counter-Terrorism Committee, Non-Proliferation Committee, United Nations Military Staff Committee, and Sanctions Committee.
• The council uses sanctions to put pressure on a country to comply with its objectives, without using force.

The correct answer is the President of India.

• The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is appointed by the President of India under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
• The basic procedure to be followed for the appointment of CJI is:
  • Appointment to the office of the Chief Justice of India should be of the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court considered fit to hold the office.
  • The Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs would, at the appropriate time, seek the recommendation of the outgoing Chief Justice of India for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
  • Whenever there is any doubt about the fitness of the senior-most Judge to hold the office of the Chief Justice of India, consultation with other Judges as envisaged in Article 124 (2) of the Constitution would be made for the appointment of the next Chief Justice of India.
  • After receipt of the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India, the Union Minister of Law, Justice and Company Affairs will put up the recommendation to the Prime Minister who will advise the President in the matter of appointment. 

2 is NOT correct.

• ​Kerala has 9 seats in the council of states.

​

• The Rajya Sabha or Council of States:
  • The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India.
  • It currently has a maximum membership of 245.
  • Out of which 233 are elected by the legislatures of the states and union territories using single transferable votes system.
  • The President can appoint 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services.
  • Although the maximum seating capacity of the Rajya Sabha is 250 (238 elected, 12 appointed) (article 80).

• Maximum no. of seats in The Rajya Sabha or Council of States 
  • ​Utter Pradesh - 31
  • Tamil Nadu -18
  • Bihar and West Bengal each have 16 seats.
• No members from:
  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  • Chandigarh
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli
  • Daman and Diu
  • Ladakh
  • Lakshadweep 

The correct answer is 'Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic'.

• According to the preamble to the Indian Constitution, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic state.
• ​Key Words In The Preamble:
• Sovereign:
  • The term Sovereign which is proclaimed by the Preamble means that India has its own independent authority and it is not a dominion of any other external power.
  • In the country, the legislature has the power to make laws which are subjected to certain limitations.
• Socialist:
  • The term Socialist was added in the Preamble by 42nd Amendment, 1976 which means the achievement of socialist ends through democratic means.
  • It is basically a Democratic Socialism that holds faith in a mixed economy where both the private and public sectors co-exist side by side.
• Secular:
  • The term Secular was incorporated in the Preamble by 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976 which means that all the religions in India get equal respect, protection and support from the state.
• Democratic:The term Democratic implies that the Constitution of India has an established form of Constitution which gets its authority from the will of the people expressed in an election.

• Socialist and Secular were the two words added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment, in 1976.
  • The earlier description of India was the Sovereign Democratic Republic.
  • It was then changed to Sovereign, Socialist, Secular Democratic Republic.

The correct answer is option 1 i.e 1951.

• The Representation of the People Act was passed in 1951.
  • Representation of Peoples Act 1951 provides for the actual conduct of elections in India.
  • Act deals with the election of the Parliament and State Legislatures, the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and state legislatures
  • It was introduced in Parliament by the then law minister Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
  • It was enacted under Article 327 of the Indian Constitution before the first general election in India.
  • Representation of People’s Act contains 13 parts.
• Articles 324 to 329 deals with the electoral system in India.
• The Representation of the People (Amendment) Bill, 2016 was introduced by Varun Gandhi in Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is Om Birla.

• OM Birla has been unanimously elected Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha.
• OM Birla is also a second term BJP MP from Kota, Rajasthan.
• The Opposition did not field any candidate for the Speaker's post and the motion moved by Prime Minister Modi to choose the Kota-Bundi MP as Speaker was adopted by a voice vote.
• A total of 13 motions were moved in support of Om Birla as the Speaker.
• Birla was declared elected as speaker by pro-tem Speaker Virendra Kumar.

The correct answer is Omprakash Rawat.

• Omprakash Rawat is a former Chief Election Commissioner of India (23 January 2018 - 1 Dec. 2018).
  • He was the 22nd Chief Election Commissioner of India.
• Sunil Arora is the Current Chief Election Commissioner of India (2 Dec. 2018 - Incumbent).

• The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) who has a tenure of 6 years or up to 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• Sukumar Sen was the 1st CEC of India (21 March 1950 - 19 December 1958).

The correct answer is 1, 3, and 4 only.

• Emergency Provisions are incorporated to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country, the democratic and political system, and the Constitution.
• Imposed in 1962, 1971, and 1975. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Inspired by the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
• It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without an amendment of the constitution.
• It can be classified into

1.  National Emergency (A 352 to 354, 358 and 359)
2.  State Emergency (A 355 to 357, 365)
3.  Financial Emergency (A 360)

National Emergency:

• If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether, by war or external aggression or armed rebellion [44th amendment in place of internal disturbances], he may, by Proclamation, made a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory [42nd amendment] thereof as may be specified in the Proclamation.
• It can be made before the actual occurrence of war or any such aggression or rebellion if the President is satisfied that there is imminent danger thereof. [44th amendment] Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• A Proclamation issued may be varied or revoked by a subsequent proclamation.
• President can only issue such a declaration after receiving a decision from Union Cabinet in writing. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It can be passed again and again. [unlimited times]
• Article 19 is automatically suspended when the National Emergency is imposed in case of the proclamation on the ground of war or external aggression. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• The President may by order declare that the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Article 20 and 21)[44th amendment] and all proceedings pending in any court for the enforcement of the rights so mentioned shall remain suspended for the period during which the Proclamation is in force or for such shorter period as may be specified in the order.

The correct answer is Inter-Services Intelligence.

• The ISI is the premier intelligence agency of Pakistan.
• It was formed n the year January 1, 1948.
• Its headquarters is in Islamabad, Pakistan.

• An intelligence agency is a government agency responsible for the collection, analysis, and exploitation of information in support of law enforcement, national security, military, and foreign policy objectives.

The correct answer is The Indian Constitution is irrevocable.

• Indian Constitution is a written Constitution.
• Under part XVIII of the Constitution, it provides the Emergency provision under various circumstances.
• Indian Constitution is a Quasi-federal constitution that provides different levels of government at the Center and State levels.
• Indian Constitution is revocable under Article 368.
• Article 368 states the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure.

Some features of the Indian Constitution:

• It is the lengthiest constitution in the world.
• It is a written constitution.
• It is Quasi-federal in nature.
• It is Rigid and flexible in nature.
• It provides Independent Judiciary. 

The correct answer is Rajya Sabha.

• Twelve members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India for the six-years term for their contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services.
• This right has been bestowed upon the President according to the Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Constitution of India.
• Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer was the first member of Parliament who was appointed by the President in Rajya Sabha.

• Between 1952 and 2020, two seats were reserved in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India, for members of the Anglo-Indian community.
• These two members were nominated by the President of India on the advice of the Government of India.
• The Governor of the state can appoint one member to Legislative Assemble and one-sixth member to the Legislative Council.

The correct answer is Chennai.

• The national centre for technology for ports, waterways and coast (NTCPWC) will be formed in Chennai.

• It was established to boost the development of indigenous technology.
• To expertise in India’s port and maritime sector is the other aim of establishing it.
• It will provide:-
  • Autonomous platforms for navigation and water quality monitoring.
  • Also, provide night time navigation in inland waterways.
  • For small ports, new indigenous technologies will be given.

• The structure that prevents waves from entering the harbour is called breakwaters.
• To consolidate to provide solutions to fulfil the technological requirements of the sector is the major aim of NTCPWC.

The correct answer is Arunachal Pradesh.

• On 20th Feb 1987, Arunachal Pradesh became a full-fledged state.

• It was known as North-East Frontier Agency (NEFA) till 1972.
• It gained Union Territory status on 20 January 1972 and was renamed Arunachal Pradesh.
• It was then controlled by the Ministry of External Affairs with the Governor of Assam acting as an agent to the President of India.
• Itanagar is the capital of the state.
• On 15th August 1975, an elected Legislative Assembly was constituted and the first Council of Ministers assumed office.
• The first general election to the Assembly was held in February 1978.
• As per the census of 2011, the population is 1382611 having 26 towns and 38643 villages.
• The state has lush green forests and deep river valleys.

• Arunachal Pradesh:
  • Governor - B. D Mishra
  • Chief Minister - Pema Khandu 
  • Capital - Itanagar
  • Number of District- 19
  • Some of the important festivals of the State are Mopin, Solung, Lossar,  Boori-boot, Sherdukpens, Dree, Si-Donyi, Reh, Nyokum.
• The Arunachal Pradesh State Election Commission in support of State Govt. has successfully conducted and completed Panchayati Raj Elections in the State in the month of May 2008 for speedy development in the village and grass-root level.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

• Many provisions of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from other constitution but the Indian Constitution is Indian in character.
• We just borrowed these provisions and moulded them as per the Indian requirement.

List of provisions that are borrowed from other constitutions are-

• The three branches of the government are the executive, the legislature and the judiciary. 
• The executive is the organ that implements the laws made by the Parliament and legislature.
• It is the administrative head of the government.
• The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.

• Our Constitution distributes between the Union and the States not only the legislative power but also the executive power, more or less on the same lines.
• The result is that it is not competent for a State to exercise administrative power with respect to Union subjects, or for the Union to take up the administration of any State function unless authorised on that behalf by any provision in the Constitution.
• In administrative matters, a rigid division like this may lead to occasional deadlocks.
• To avoid such a situation, the Constitution has engrafted provisions enabling the Union as well as a State to make a mutual delegation of their respective administrative functions:

As to the delegation of Unlon functions, there are two methods:

• With the consent of the State Government, the President may, without any legislative sanction, entrust any executive function to that State
• Irrespective of any consent of the State concerned, Parliament may, while legislating with respect to Union subject, confer powers upon a State or its officers, relating to such subject. Such delegation has, in short, a statutory basis.
• Conversely, with the consent of the Government of India, the Governor of a State may entrust on the Union Government or its officers, functions relating to a State subject, so far as that State is concerned.

The Parliament of India (Sansad) is the supreme law-making institution. It has two Houses, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Created after 1947, the Indian Parliament is an expression of the faith that the people of India have in principles of democracy.

• These are participation by people in the decision-making process and government by consent.
• The Parliament in our system has immense powers because it is the representative of the people.
• Elections to the Parliament are held in a similar manner as they are for the state legislature.

Thus, option 3 is the correct answer.

• The Lok Sabha is usually elected once every five years.
• The country is divided into numerous constituencies.
• Each of these constituencies elects one person to the Parliament.
• The candidates who contest elections usually belong to different political parties.
• Once elected, these candidates become Members of Parliament or MPs.
• These MPs together make up the Parliament.
• Once elections to the Parliament have taken place, the Parliament needs to perform the following functions:
  • To Select the National Government
  • To Control, Guide and Inform the Government
  •  Law-Making

In our country, Parliament consists of two Houses. The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). 

Rajya Sabha:

• The Rajya Sabha functions primarily as the representative of the states of India in the Parliament.
• The Rajya Sabha can also initiate legislation and a bill is required to pass through the Rajya Sabha in order to become a law.
• It, therefore, has an important role of reviewing and altering (if alterations are needed) the laws initiated by the Lok Sabha.
• The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of various states.
• There are 233 elected members plus 12 members nominated by the President.

Thus, we can conclude that the Rajya Sabha can have at most 245 members.

The correct answer is Part XII.

The Constitution of India is grouped into 25 parts which are as follows:-   

At present there are 6 fundamental rights which are as follows:-

• Right to Equality (Article 14 to 18)
• Right to Freedom (Article 19 to 22)
• Right against exploitation (Article 23 to 24)
• Right to freedom of religion (Article 25 to 28)
• Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29 to 30)
• Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32 to 35)

Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar said Article 32 as Heart and Soul of the Constitution of India.

When the Constitution was made, there were 7 Constitutional rights but the 44th Constitutional Amendment,1978 removed the Right to property.

The correct answer is None of the above.

• All the give personalities are lefty.
• Hence the correct answer is None of the above.

• Prime Minister of India, Narendra Modi is one of the most famous left-handed leaders of the world. 
• Amitabh Bachchan one of the prominent Bollywood personality is left-handed.
• Mahatma Gandhi Ji, Father of the Nation who walked our country to freedom was left-handed.
• Some of the famous left-handed personalities are Barack Obama, Bill Clinton, Bill Gates, Tom Cruise, Marilyn Monroe, Angelina Jolie, Sachin Tendulkar, etc.

The correct answer is Sachchidananda Sinha.

• The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on December 9, 1946.
• Sachchidananda Sinha, being the oldest member, selected as the interim president of the Constituent Assembly.
• This is the French mechanism of electing heads.
• Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly.

• Sachindranath Sanyal was the founder of the Hindustan Republican Association and was a revolutionary.
• Sarojini Naidu:
  • She was a member of the fundamental rights sub-committee, the advisory committee, and the provincial constitutional committee.
  • In the 1925 Kanpur session of INC, Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman President.
• S Subramaniya Iyer:
  • He was the first Indian to be appointed as Government Pleader and Public Prosecutor.
  • He acted as Chief Justice thrice – in1903, 1905, and 1907, the first Indian to do so. 

• The appointment of acting Chief Justice is to be made by the President under Article 126 of the Constitution. 
• Vacancy in the office of the Chief Justice must be filled whatever the period of vacancy.
• Article 126 – Appointment of acting Chief justice.
• At present, N. V. Ramana is the current Chief Justice of India. 

• The Chief Justice is responsible for the allocation of work to other judges.
• The Chief Justice administers the oath of office to the President In the absence of the President and the Vice-President, the Chief Justice sits as the Acting President of India
• The Chief Justice is the ex-officio Chancellor to most autonomous law schools in India.

• The individual must be a citizen of India.
•  The person must not exceed 65 years of age.
• In order to be eligible to be Chief Justice of India, the person must serve as a judge at High Court for at least five years or the person should be an advocate in the High court or the Supreme court for at least 10 years or a distinguished jurist.

The Correct Answer is a, b, c and d.

The following are the few recommendations of the 2^nd ARC on local government:

1.  Local bodies Ombudsman should be empowered to investigate cases against the functionaries of the local bodies. The State Panchayat Raj Acts and the Urban Local Bodies Act should be amended to include the provision.
2. The local bodies Ombudsman should be empowered to investigate cases of corruption or maladministration by the functionaries of the local self-governments and submit a report to the competent authorities for taking action. The competent authorities should normally take action as recommended. In case they do not agree with the recommendations, they should give their reasons in writing and the reasons should be made public.
3. A District Council should be constituted in all districts with representation from rural and urban areas. It should be empowered to exercise the powers and functions in accordance with Articles 243 G and 243 W of the Constitution. In that event, the District Planning Committees (DPCs) will either not exist or become, at best, an advisory arm of the District Council.  Article 243 (d) of the Constitution should be amended to facilitate this.
4. In the interim and in accordance with the present constitutional scheme, DPCs should be constituted in all States within three months of completion of elections to local bodies and should become the sole planning body for the district. The DPC should be assisted by a planning office with a full-time District Planning Officer (District Collector).
5. In metropolitan areas state should establish a metropolitan transport authority where the population is more than 1 million.

The correct answer is 1 only.

Article 279A: GST Council 

• President must constitute a GST Council under 60 days after the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2017.
• Composition:
  • Chairman: Union Finance Minister (Hence, Statement 1 is correct.)
  • Member: Union Minister in charge of Finance or Revenue 
  • Member: Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other minister nominated by each state government
  • Vice-chairman: Among Members
• Recommendations on:
  • taxes, cess, and surcharge levied by Union, State & other local bodies 
  • Goods & Services exempted from GST
  • model GST laws 
  • apportionment 
  • principles threshold limit of turnover, rates(floor rates) any special rate for the special period during any natural calamity or disaster 
  • special provisions concerning states of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, J&K, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Himachal Pradesh, Uttrakhand, etc.
• Date of levy on Petroleum crude, high-speed diesel, motor spirit(petrol), natural gas, & aviation turbine fuel.
• Development of the harmonized natural market for Goods & Services.
• Quorum:  50%(members). Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Majority for decision: 3/4th of the weighted votes of Present & Voting. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Central Government Weightage is 1/3rd
  • State government weightage is 2/3rd     

The correct answer is 14.

• Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act was enacted by the Ministry of Law and Justice on 30th July 2016.
• This Act amended the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986.
• According to this Act:
  • No child shall be employed or permitted to work in any occupation or process.
  • Criteria of a child - A person below the age of 14 yrs.

•  Nothing in Act shall apply where the child:
  • Helps his family or family enterprise, which is other than any hazardous occupations or processes set forth in the Schedule, after his school hours or during vacations.
  • Works as an artist in the audio-visual entertainment industry, including advertisement, films, television serials or any such other entertainment or sports activities except the circus.

•  Article 24 - Prohibition of child labour.

The correct answer is Advocate General.

• The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be the Advocate General for the State.
• The authority and function of the Advocate General are also specified in the Constitution of India under Article 165 and 177. 

The duties of Advocate General for the State include:

• to give advice to the government of the state upon legal matters.
• to perform duties of other legal charter assigned to him by the governor.
• discharge the functions conferred to him under the constitution.

Some important Articles:

The correct answer is International Union for Conservation of Nature.

• IUCN Red List
  • The Red Data Book is the state document established for documenting rare and endangered species of animals, plants.
  • It also deals with fungi as well as some local subspecies that exist within the territory of the state or country.
  • This book provides central information for studies and monitoring programs on rare and endangered species and their habits.

• The International Union for Conservation of Nature
  • IUCN is a membership Union uniquely composed of both government and civil society organizations.
  • Created in 1948, it is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.
  • It is headquartered in Switzerland.
  • The IUCN Red List of Threatened Species is the world's most comprehensive inventory of the global conservation status of plant and animal species.
  • It uses a set of quantitative criteria to evaluate the extinction risk of species. These criteria are relevant to most species and all regions of the world.
  • The IUCN Red List Categories define the extinction risk of species assessed. Nine categories extend from NE (Not Evaluated) to EX (Extinct). Critically Endangered (CR), Endangered (EN), and Vulnerable (VU) species are considered to be threatened with extinction.
  • It is recognized as the most authoritative guide to the status of biological diversity.
  • It is also a key indicator for the SDGs and Aichi Targets.

The correct answer is ​Article 94.

• Article 94 of the constitution of India deals with provisions related to the Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

• Speaker is a member of parliament.
• On the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, the Speaker ceases to be a member of the House but he/she does not vacate his/her office.
• As per article 94, the speaker holds Office from the date of his/her election till immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha after the dissolution of the Lok Sabha to which he/she was elected as a member.

The correct answer is Deer.

• Deer is the district symbol/mascot of Jaipur.
• For the conservation and safety of forest animals, the Rajasthan Forest Department has come up with a unique idea to create awareness.
• Each district of the Rajasthan will be represented by an animal mascot.
• The selection of the mascot will be based on the species present in the particular district.
• For Example, Crane has been declared the mascot of Bharatpur.
• The main purpose of the initiative is to create awareness amongst the masses.
• A two-day programme has been organised in each district to where school and college students will be educated about the country's rich fauna and way to conserve this.

• Other Mascots of Districts:
  • Kharmor bird in Ajmer
  • Sambar deer in Alwar
  • Bronze winged Jacana in Banswara
  • Alligator in Baran
  • Fox in Barmer
  • Sandgrouse in Bikaner
  • Golden pheasant in Bundi
  • Rabbit in Dausa
  • Indian Screamer in Dhaulpur