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A constitution is not only about the composition of the various organs of government and the relations among them.  

• Part three of the Constitution of India lists the Fundamental Rights and also mentions the limits on these rights.
• In the past fifty years, the scope of rights has changed and in some respects, expanded. 

Right to Freedom

• Protection of Right to
  • freedom of speech and expression
  • assemble peacefully
  • form associations/unions
  • move freely throughout the territory of India
  • reside and settle in any part of India
  • practise any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
• Protection in respect of conviction for offences
• Right to life and personal liberty
• Right to education
• Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases 

If a politician in one state decides to not allow labourers from other states to work in his state, then the Right to Freedom fundamental right is been violated. It is because the right to freedom allows an individual to move freely throughout the territory of India.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

• Castes are being politicized in India.
• Castism has been increasing in Indian Politics, the caste is politicizing in India.
• Hence the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

• In the contemporary Indian scenario, caste mobilization has become an important factor in determining Indian politics. 
• The caste system, which is based on the philosophies of purity and pollution, hierarchy and difference, has despite social mobility, been overbearing towards the Shudras and the outcastes who suffered the disgrace of ritual impurity and lived in abject poverty, illiteracy, and denial of political power.
• The basis of confrontational identity politics based on caste may be said to have its origin on the issue of providing the oppressed caste groups with state support in the form of protective discrimination.

The correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• India is a republic means the head of the state is elected.
• In India President is elected indirectly.
• Hence the correct answer is Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

• Republic means a state in which supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives, and which has an elected or nominated president rather than a monarch.
• In India the head of the State is President, and he is elected by the people for a fixed term of five years.
• From French Revolution - Ideal of Liberty, Equality, and fraternity, and of Republic are borrowed.

The Correct Answer is Bella Banerjee Case - Right to travel abroad is part of daily freedom.

• The question of interpreting the compensation promised by the Constitution arose for the first time in the Bela Banerjee case of 1954 involving a West Bengal law that sought to pay off the owners on the basis of the market value of their land on some distant date in the past.
• Rejecting the socialistic arguments of the state, SC laid down that the compensation should be “a just equivalent of what the owner has been deprived of”.

• Indira Sawhney & Others v. Union of India
  • The constitution recognized social and educational backwardness, but not economic backwardness.
  • The court upheld separate reservation for OBC in central government jobs but excluded these to the creamy layer.
• Vishaka and others v State of Rajasthan
  • Vishaka and others v State of Rajasthan was a 1997 Indian Supreme Court case where various women's groups led by Naina Kapur filed Public Interest Litigation (PIL) against the state of Rajasthan and the central government of India to enforce the fundamental rights of working women under Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Constitution of India.
  • The petition was filed after Bhanwari Devi, a social worker in Rajasthan was brutally gang-raped for stopping child marriage.
  • It provided the basic definitions of sexual harassment at the workplace and provided guidelines to deal with it.
  • It is seen as a significant legal victory for women's groups in India.
• Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India
  • The landmark ruling in Maneka Gandhi versus Union of India, which stands as a bulwark of the Right of Personal Liberty granted by Article 21 of the Constitution, started when the passport of the petitioner, in this case, was impounded by the authorities under the provisions of the Passport Act.
  • The provisions given in Articles 14, 19 & 21 should be read together and aren’t mutually exclusive.
  • Only a cumulative reading and subsequent interpretation will lead to the observance of principles of natural justice and the true spirit of constitutionalism.

The correct answer is Sending messages to the Houses of Parliament.

• Article 86 of the constitution states that the president can send messages to the Houses of Parliament relating to bills pending or otherwise.

• The powers of the Indian President can be broadly classified under 8 headings.
  • Legislative
  • Executive or Appointment powers
  • Judicial powers
  • Financial power
  • Diplomatic powers
  • Military powers
  • Pardoning Powers
  • Emergency powers

• Article 143 of the Indian Constitution confers upon the Supreme Court advisory jurisdiction.
• The President may seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact of public importance on which he thinks it expedient to obtain such an opinion
• Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are in the nature of temporary laws
• Article 72 deals with the Power of the President to grant pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.

The Correct Answer is Only (i) and (iv).

• 15th Lok Sabha had the highest number of women MPs
• A record 59 women MPs had been elected to the Lok Sabha.
•  They are more than 10% of the total members of the Lok Sabha. Hence Statement 1 is Not Correct.
• Among the 59 women MPs in the 15th Lok Sabha, a majority - 23  were from the Congress. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) had 13 women members.
• Uttar Pradesh had the maximum number of 13 women MPs. Hence Statement 4 is Correct.
• It was followed by West Bengal with seven.
• 2 Women's MPs were from Rajasthan. Hence Statement 3 is Not Correct.

The Correct Answer is a Village servant​.

• The Rajasthan government in 2013 had issued guidelines for the proper implementation of the Right to Hearing Act in the state.
• The RTH Act aims to ensure that all complaints of the common man with regard to governance are addressed and disposed of in a time-bound manner.
• This Act is aimed at strengthening the Rajasthan Guaranteed Delivery of Public Services Act which was implemented in November 2011.
• The Act laid down provisions for appointing public hearing officers, appellate authorities at gram panchayat, tehsil, sub-block, district and division levels, provisions for information and facilitation, and time-bound disposal of complaints.

Public Hearing Officer and their subject matter:

Thus, we can say that Village servant or Gram Sewak has been notified by the Government of Rajasthan as Public Hearing Officer at the Panchayat level for matters other than revenue.

• After receiving a complaint, a unique registration number will be given to the complainant in a receipt that will also have the date when the complaint is to be heard, the officer hearing it, and the place for the hearing.
• The receipt will be in three counterfoils of red (for the complainant), yellow (for the concerned department), and white for the office of the assistance booth.

The correct answer is Geneva.

• World Trade Organization(WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that is concerned with the regulation of international trade between nations founded in 1995. 
• Its headquarter is in Geneva, Switzerland.
• It has 164 member countries.
• It assists its members on a daily basis to ensure, among other things, that negotiations progress smoothly, and that the rules of international trade are correctly applied and enforced.
  Its main function is trade negotiations, implementation and monitoring trade policies, dispute settlement between member countries, and building trade capacity for its member countries. 

• Paris is the capital and most populous city of France.
• United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) has its headquarter in Paris.
• Dubai is the most populous city in the United Arab Emirates and the capital of the UAE is Abu Dhabi.

The correct answer is ​Option 3.

Functions of the National Commission of Scheduled Castes:

• To investigate and monitor all matters relating to the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the SCs and to evaluate their working.
• To inquire into specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the SCs.
• To participate and advise on the planning process of socio-economic development of the SCs and to evaluate the progress of their development under the Union or a state.
• To present to the President, annually and at such other times as it may deem fit, reports upon the working of those safeguards.
• To make recommendations as to the measures that should be taken by the Union or a state for the effective implementation of those safeguards and other measures for the protection, welfare, and socio-economic development of the SCs. However, their advice is not binding. Hence, Option 3 is incorrect.
• To discharge such other functions concerning the protection, welfare and development and advancement of the SCs as the president may specify.

• National Commission for SC and ST was created by the 65th Amendment Act, 1990.
  • It replaced the single-member special officer for SC and ST.
  • It constituted a multimember body, the National Commission for SC and ST under Article 338.
• It was bifurcated into the National Commission of Scheduled Castes and National Commission of Scheduled Tribes by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003.
  • ​It added a new Article 338-A.

The correct answer is 2004.

• The National Commission for Schedules Castes was formed on 19 February 2004.
• The body is mentioned in article 338 of the Indian constitution.
• It is a quasi-judicial body.
• It is responsible for the monitoring and reporting about the implementation of constitutional safeguards for Scheduled castes.
• It has a civil court's power.

• The first commission was constituted in the year 2004.
• The chairman of the first commission was Suraj Bhan.
• The function of the body includes inquiring into specific matters with respect to the depriving of rights.
• It also participates in the socio-economic development of the community.

The correct answer is 8.

• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
• The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu on 16 January 1987.
• SAARC comprises of eight-member countries:
  • Afghanistan
  • Bangladesh
  • Bhutan
  • India
  • Maldives
  • Nepal
  • Pakistan
  • Sri Lanka

• You can remember the names of SAARC Countries using the mnemonic.
• "MBBS PAIN" for Maldives, Bhutan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Afghanistan, India, Nepal.

The correct answer is 2007.

• Afghanistan joined the SAARC as its eighth member state in April 2007.
• South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established on 8 December, 1985 in Dhaka.
• The headquarter of SAARC is in Kathmandu (Nepal).
• Capital of Afghanistan is Kabul.
• President of Afghanistan is Ashraf Ghani.

• SAARC comprises of eight Member States : Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. 
• Few Important Objectives of SAARC:
  • To promote the welfare of the peoples of South Asia and to improve their quality of life.
  • To accelerate economic growth.
  • Social progress and cultural development in the region.

  • To cooperate with international and regional organizations with similar aims and purposes.

The correct answer is Article 49.

• Article 49, comes under Part IV (Article 36 - 51) of the Indian Constitution.
• Part IV comprises of Directive Principles of State policies (DPSPs).
• It was borrowed from the Irish Constitution, who borrowed it from the Spanish Constitution.
• Unlike Fundamental Rights, DPSPs are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced in courts) in nature.
• Article 46 - Promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections.
• Article 47 - Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health
• Article 48 - Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry.

• Other Important Articles among DPSPs:
  • ​Article 37 - It shall not be enforceable by any court.
  • Article 40 - State shall take steps to organize village panchayats.
  • Article 44 - Uniform civil code.
  • Article 50 - Separation of Judiciary from Executive.
  • Article 51 - Promote International Peace and Security. 

 The Correct Answer is 2,00,000.

• The  Motor Vehicles (Amendment) Bill increases the minimum compensation for hit and runs cases as follows
  • in case of death, from Rs 25,000 to two lakh rupees
  • In the case of grievous injury, from Rs 12,500 to Rs 50,000.

• Motor Vehicle Amendment Bill 2019
  • ​The maximum penalty for driving under the influence of alcohol or drugs has been increased from Rs 2,000 to Rs 10,000.
  • If a vehicle manufacturer fails to comply with motor vehicle standards, the penalty will be a fine of up to Rs 100 crore, or imprisonment of up to one year, or both.
  • The Bill defines a good samaritan as a person who renders emergency medical or non-medical assistance to a victim at the scene of an accident.
  • The Bill requires the central government to constitute a Motor Vehicle Accident Fund, to provide compulsory insurance cover to all road users in India.

The correct answer is Pocket Veto.

• A bill passed by the Parliament becomes Act only after getting the assent of the President.
• The President of India has the following rights over the bill passed by the Parliament:
  • He may give his assent to the bill.
  • Withhold his assent to the bill.
  • He may return the bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament.
• The veto powers enjoyed by the President of India are:
  • Absolute Veto.
  • Pocket Veto.
  • Suspensive Veto.

• A pocket veto is a kind of veto enjoyed by the President of India by keeping a bill on his table indefinitely without giving or refusing assent.
• He will not take any action on the bill under Pocket veto.
• The first president to use Pocket Veto was Gyani Zail Singh.

• Absolute Veto refers to the power of the President to withhold his assent to a bill passed by the Parliament.
• The President of India exercises the Suspensive Veto when he returns a bill for the reconsideration of the Parliament.
• Qualified Veto does not apply to Indian President
• President cannot send back a money bill passed by the Parliament. 
• The 24^th Constitutional Amendment Act 1971 made it obligatory for the president to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill.

The correct answer is Only 4.

• Smt. Sumitra Singh was the first woman speaker of the Rajasthan State Assembly.
• Sumitra Mahajan is the longest-serving woman member of Parliament.
  • She was also the 16th speaker of the Lok sabha.

• The first Speaker of the State Assembly was Narottam Lal Joshi.
  • He was a politician, freedom fighter and social worker.
  • He was also the leader of Jakat Aandolan.
• The Speaker to serve the Assembly for the longest term was Shri Ramniwas Mirdha.
  • He remained the speaker for the second and the third legislative assembly.
• C P Joshi is the present legislative assembly speaker.
  • He is the current and 15th Speaker of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.

The correct answer is 1 only.

• The Scheduled areas are treated differently from other areas as they are inhabited by the aboriginals who are socially and economically backwards.
• Special efforts are required for their development.
• In India, they are given special rights under Schedule 5 and 6 of the Indian Constitution.

Salient Feature of Schedule 5 of the Indian Constitution: 

• Applies to the entire country except for Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.
• Governors are empowered to constitute TAC (Tribe Advisory Council) which will not be more than 20 members. Hence Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
• All members of the TAC are nominated by Governor.
• It is an advisory Body.
• It has no Judicial power.
• Its advice is not binding. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• All enactment of Parliament and the state legislature are applied to these areas unless otherwise notified by the Governor.

• Schedule 6 applies to Tripura, Assam, Meghalaya, and Mizoram.

The correct answer is 26.01.1950.

• The constitution of India was commenced on 26 Jan 1950.
• 26 Jan is celebrated as Republic day in our country.
• Earlier India was referred to as 'Union of India', but from this day it became 'Republic of India'.
• 26 Jan was selected to inaugurate the constitution because on this date, in the Lahore session of INC in 1929, the demand for complete Independence was raised for the first time by Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.

• Republic - A country that has an elected government and an elected leader.
• Father of Indian Constitution - Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar, was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

• On 26th Jan 2021, India will celebrate  72nd Republic Day.
• Boris Johnson was invited as the chief guest, but later he withdrew it in the wake of the new strain of Covid-19 in Britain.

The correct answer is Khargone.

• In Madhya Pradesh, the head office of Cotton Research Centre is located at Khargone.
• Khargone district is one of the leading cotton-producing districts in Madhya Pradesh.
• Cotton is the primary cash crop of the Khargone district.
• "Jawahar Lal Nehru Sahakari Soot Mill" is one of the major spinning unit in Khargone district.
• Khargone received a national award for 'India's fastest moving city' under a population of two lakh.
• Khargone city ranked top 20 positions in Swachh Survekshan list 2017 and 2018.
  • 15th cleanest city in India in Swachh Survekshan 2018.
  • 17th cleanest city in India in Swachh Survekshan 2017.

• Cotton is also called white gold.
• Indore is the largest city in Madhya Pradesh.
• Jhabua is famous for its black cotton soil.
• Ratlam is known for trading in opium, tobacco, and salt.

The correct answer is 2013.

• National Food Security Act is an act of the Parliament of India which was signed in 2013 on February 24. 
• The objective of this act was to provide food and nutritional security in a human life cycle, by ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food at affordable prices to live a life with dignity.
• The Act provides for coverage of up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized food grains.
• Under this scheme eligible person will receive 5kg of food grain per person in priority household and person in Antyodaya Anna Yojana will get 35kg per family. 
• A total of 67% population of the country is covered with this scheme.

The correct answer is Wild Buffalo.

• The State Animal of Chattisgarh is Wild Buffalo.
• Asian water buffalo is a Schedule–I animal, according to the wildlife (Protection) act of 1972, and classified as Endangered (EN) by the IUCN.
• The weight of adult Asian water buffalo is between 600 kg to 1200 kg.
• The length of the tail is between 60 cm to 100 cm. They are about 150 cm to 200 cm high at the shoulder.

The correct answer is Panchmarhi.

• Panchmarhi is known as the state's Tourism Capital. Pachmarhi is one of the famous places in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It is located in the district of Hoshangabad. It is also known as the Summer Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
• This place is situated in the Satpura mountains. It is the only Hill station in the state. It is said to be that this place was discovered by Captain Forsyth by finding Priyadarshini Caves.
• According to the ancient stories, Pandavas of Mahabharata spent their one year exile in this place.
• The meaning of Pachmarhi is "Five Caves" or Five Shelter". It is also famous for Lord Shiva, Pandavas of Mahabharata, Satpura Tiger Reserve, and Satpura National Park.

The correct answer is Bangalore.

• The Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is a public, deemed, research university for higher education and research in science, engineering, design, and management.
• IISc is located in Bangalore, in the Indian state of Karnataka.
• The institute was established in 1909 with active support from Jamsedji Tata and thus is also locally known as the "Tata Institute".
• It was granted the deemed to be university status in 1958 and the Institute of Eminence status in 2018.

The correct answer is Raisen.

• The Life Science Institute is located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh. 
• The Raisen Fort was built around 1200 AD by the Rajput rulers.

• The Bhimbetka Caves is located in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh state. According to ancient things, the folklore goes that one of the five brothers of Pandavas from Mahabharata Bhim sat here.
• This ancient site was discovered and headed by DR. Vishnu Narhari Wakankar. In Bhimbetka caves there are rock shelters feature pre-historic cave paintings and the earliest are said to about 10,000 years old century (8,000 BCE)
• These cave paintings belong to the Mesolithic age that shows theme paintings of such as hunting animals, early evidence of dance, etc. In 2003, the Bhimbetka caves included in the UNESCO heritage list.

The correct answer is United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.

• UNFCCC stands for United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change.
• It is an international environmental treaty (currently the only international climate policy venue with broad legitimacy, due in part to its virtually universal membership) negotiated at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), informally known as the Earth Summit, held in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992.
• The UNFCCC was adopted on 9 May 1992, and opened for signature on 4 June 1992, after an Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee produced the text of the Framework Convention as a report following its meeting in New York from 30 April to 9 May 1992. 
• It entered into force on 21 March 1994. As of March 2014, UNFCCC has 196 parties.
• The objective of the treaty is to "stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate system".
• The treaty itself set no binding limits on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries and contains no enforcement mechanisms.  

The correct answer is Public Interest Litigation.

PIL stands for Public Interest Litigation.

• Public interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation filed in a court of law, for the protection of “Public Interest”, such as Pollution, Terrorism, Road safety, Constructional hazards etc. Any matter where the interest of the public at large is affected can be redressed by filing a Public Interest Litigation in a court of law.
• It is the power given to the public by courts through judicial activism.
• The aim of PIL is to give the common people access to the courts to obtain legal redress.
• PIL is an important instrument of social change and for maintaining the Rule of law and accelerating the balance between law and justice.
• It is an important tool to make human rights reach those who have been denied rights.

The correct answer is None of the above.

• The Amendment Bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the President. Hence the statement is correct.
• There is no time limit within which the States should give their consent to the Amendment Bill. Hence the statement is correct.
• Hence None of the above statements is incorrect.

• The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution has been laid down under Article 368:
  • An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
  • The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
  • The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
  • Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
  • If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.
  • After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the President for assent.
  • The President must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill to the Parliament for reconsideration.
  • After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a Constitutional Amendment Act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

The correct answer is No person is above law.

• Rule of law means everybody is equal before law irrespective of caste, class, sex, and religion.
• It emphasizes the principle that law should govern a nation as opposed to being governed by the arbitrary decisions of independent officials of the executive or the judiciary.
• No one can be above the law, may it be the president or the common man. 

​

• The concept of the Rule of Law was propounded by A.V.Dicey, a British jurist and it is believed that it was introduced into India by the British, which was a well-accepted doctrine in Europe.
• But some historians tend to differ from this view as they believe British law was arbitrary that is they don't have a written constitution in place and is based on customs and conventions.
• Moreover, they also believe that it was Indians who contributed in a significant way in developing the legal sphere in Britain.
• However the term "Rule of law" is not provided in the Indian constitution but followed in principle but is accepted by the Supreme court in various cases like the Maneka Gandhi case and the Keshavananda Bharathi case.
• Thus Rule of law is a well-accepted doctrine in India and is quintessential in the successful functioning of any democracy in the world.

The Indian President is the head of the state and he is also called the first citizen of India. He is a part of Union Executive, provisions of which are dealt with Article 52-78 including articles related to President (Article 52-62).

• Under the Constitution, the executive power of the Union is vested in the President and is exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him. 
  • Under Article 73(1), the executive power of the Union is co-extensive with the legislative power of Parliament.
  • Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses of Parliament — the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). 
  • Thus the President is the Head of the executive as well as a constituent part of Parliament.
• Though the President of India is a constituent part of Parliament, he does not sit or participate in the discussions in either of the two Houses.  There are certain constitutional functions that he has to perform with respect to Parliament.
• The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President of India (Article 108) and is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or, in their absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The President has been empowered to promulgate Ordinances based on the advice of the central government under Article 123 of the Constitution.
  • This legislative power is available to the President only when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session to enact laws.  
  • Additionally, the President cannot promulgate an Ordinance unless he ‘is satisfied’ that there are circumstances that require taking ‘immediate action’.
  • Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of reassembling or they shall cease to operate.
  • They also cease to operate in case resolutions disapproving the Ordinance are passed by both Houses. 

Thus, we can say that the President of India doesn't participate in the discussion of both houses.

The correct answer is None of the above.

• Municipality means Urban local self-governance body.
• Ministry of Urban Development, Ministry of Defence & Ministry of Home affairs deals with municipal governance. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• It derives Constitutional validity from the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 which added Part-IXA and Schedule 12th in our Indian Constitution.
• It is not a Hierarchical body. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Article 243P

• In this Part, unless the context otherwise requires, 
  • "Committee" means a Committee constituted under Article 243S;
  • "district" means a district in a State;
  • "Metropolitan area" means an area having a population of ten lakhs or more, comprised in one or more districts and consisting of two or more Municipalities or Panchayats or other contiguous areas, specified by the Governor by public notification to be a Metropolitan area for the purposes of this Part;
  • "Municipal area" means the territorial area of a Municipality as is notified by the Governor;
  • "Municipality" means an institution of self-government constituted under Article 243Q; Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • "Panchayat" means a Panchayat constituted under Article 243B;
  • "Population" means the population as ascertained at the last preceding census of which the relevant figures have been published.

Article 243Q

• There shall be constituted in every State,
  • a Nagar Panchayat (by whatever name called) for a transitional area, that is to say, an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area;
  • a Municipal Council for a smaller urban area; and
  • a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area, in accordance with the provisions of this Part.

The correct answer is 3702 km².

• Goa is a state in western India with coastlines stretching along the Arabian Sea.
  •  It is India's smallest state (1,429 square miles).
• 30, May 1987 is the Goa formation day.
• Some facts about Goa:
  • Capital: Panaji
  • Governor: Bhagat Singh Koshyari
  • CM: Pramod Pandurang Sawant
  • Official language: Konkani
  • Largest city: Vasco da Gama
  • Number of districts: 2 (North Goa and South Goa)

• The Dudhsagar Waterfalls (603 meters) can be found in the far east of the state.
• Calangute is the largest beach in Goa. Other beaches are included Baga Beach, Arambol Beach, Morjim Beach, Palolem Beach, Anjuna Beach.
• UNESCO World Heritage Site Basilica of Bom Jesus was built in the 16th Century.
• Article 371 in the Indian constitution is a special provision for Goa.

The correct answer is Part III.

• Part III, articles 12 to 35 of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.
• Article 21 of the Indian Constitution says that "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law". Hence, the phrase personal liberty is all about privacy
• This article can not be suspended at a time of emergency. 
• Fundamental Rights are borrowed from the Bill of Rights of the United States.

• Part IV, articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive principles of state policy.
• Part I, articles 1 to 4 of the Indian Constitution deals with The Union and its Territory.
• Part II, articles 5 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship.

The correct answer is Divorce.

• This Act, in substance, declared the triple talaq, ie talaq-e-biddat or any other similar form of talaq, illegal.
• Any Muslim husband who pronounces such talaq to his wife can suffer imprisonment for a term of three years and also be liable for a fine.
• This Act may be called the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019.

​

• Dowry Prohibition Act, Indian law, enacted on May 1, 1961, intended to prevent the giving or receiving of a dowry.
• The Child Marriage Restraint Act,1929  being a male above eighteen years of age and below twenty-one, contracts a child marriage shall be punishable with simple imprisonment.

The correct answer is Article - 368.

• The Constitution of India provides for its amendment to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs.
• Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

• The Constitution of India talks about three types of emergencies:
  • National Emergency in Article 352.
  • President's Rule in State is mentioned under article 356.
  • Financial Emergency in Article 360 of the Indian Constitution.
• Article 360 gives authority to the President of India to declare a financial emergency.
• Article 362 Constitution of India is Rights and privileges of Rulers of Indian States.
• Article 370 of the Indian constitution gave special status to Jammu and Kashmir, which was administered by India as a state from 1954 to 31 October 2019.

Central Statistics Office (CSO):

• The Central Statistics Office is a governmental agency in India under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
• The Central Statistics Office coordinates the statistical activities in India and evolves statistical standards. 
• Vision - To be the best and most innovative National Statistical System in the world; and to effectively monitor the programs and projects for ensuring efficient use of national statistics.

The correct answer is Only a.

• In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion need not set out the grounds on which it is based.
• Hence Only a is not correct.

•  No-Confidence Motion 
  • No-Confidence Motion is a tool against the Council of Ministers (COM) in the Lok Sabha.
  • If the motion is passed by the majority of the house, then the Government is deemed to have lost the majority.
  • The Government has to prove its majority in the house either by bringing in a vote of confidence
  • A motion of “No Confidence Motion” against the Government can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

• In Italy, the government requires the support of both houses of Parliament.

• Procedure to move a No-Confidence Motion
  • The procedure is specified under rule 198 of the Lok Sabha.
  • The Constitution of India does not mention the words 'No-Confidence Motion'.
  • A motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
  • If more than 50 members support the motion, the Speaker declares that the leave is granted.
  • The motion is taken up within 10 days from the date on which the leave is asked for.
  • If the motion is passed in the house, the Government is bound to vacate the office.

The correct answer is elections.

• Part XV of the Constitution of India deals with elections.

• Part XV of elections contains following  
  • Art. 324
    • ​Superintendence, direction, and control of elections to be vested in an Election Commission.
  • Art. 325
    • ​No person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or to claim to be included in a special, electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
  • Art. 326
    • Elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assemblies of States to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
  • Art. 329
    • Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters.

• Part XVII contains
  • Articles 343-351 Official languages.
• Part XX  contains
  • Article 368 Amendment of the Constitution.
• Part XVIII contains
  • Article 352-360 Emergency Provisions.

The Correct Answer is 14^th.

• Ram Nath Kovind became the 14th President of India.

• Ram Nath Kovind is serving as the 14th and current President of India.
• Prior to his nomination, he served as the 26th Governor of Bihar from 2015 to 2017 and as a Member of Parliament, Rajya Sabha from 1994 to 2006.
• Kovind was nominated as a presidential candidate by the ruling NDA coalition and won the 2017 presidential election.

• Dr. Rajendra Prasad is the First President of India.
• Neelam Sanjiva Reddy is the first person to be elected President of India without a contest and remains the only President to have been elected unopposed.

The correct answer is The President of India.

• Article 61 of the constitution provides for the Impeachment of the President of India.
• The President can be removed from office by impeachment for violation of the Constitution.
• The charges of impeachment can be initiated in either house of the Parliament.
• The charges need to be signed by 1/4th of the members of the House and a 14-day notice should be given to the President.
• After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of the two-thirds of the majority of that House, it is sent to the other to investigate the charges.
• If the other House also passes the resolution for impeachment by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, the President then stands impeached from his office from the date on which the resolution has been passed.

• The Governor of any state can be removed from his office by the President anytime. 
• there is no special procedure required to remove the governor from his office.
• State legislature or the Parliament can not remove the governor from his office. 
• The PM of India can be removed from his office by the president if he loses majority support in the lower House i.e. Lok Sabha or upon expiry of his term.
• The CM of India can be removed from his office by the governor if he loses majority support in State Legislative Assembly or upon expiry of his term.

The correct answer is voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country.

• No person shall be a citizen of India if he has voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country.

• Articles 5-11 in Part II of the Indian Constitution deals with Citizenship.
• The Citizenship Act, 1955, provides for the acquisition of Indian citizenship in the following ways:
  • Generally, every person born in India on or after January 1950 shall be a citizen of India or either of his parents was a citizen of India at the time of his birth.
  • A person who was outside India on or after 26 January; 1950, shall be a citizen of India by descent if his father was a citizen of India at the time of that person’s birth.
  • A person residing in India for more than seven years can seek citizenship by naturalisation.
  • If any new territory becomes a part of India, the persons of the territory become citizens of Indian.
• Citizenship of India may be lost by:
  • Renunciation of citizenship.
  • Termination of citizenship, if a citizen of India voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country.
  • Deprivation of citizenship by the Government of India.

• Single citizenship was adopted from the Constitution of Britain.

The correct answer is The President must proclaim revocation any time if any House of Parliament passes a resolution disapproving of the continuance of the proclamation.

• A proclamation of revocation of emergency can be done in the following ways:
  1. A proclamation of Emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.
  2. President must proclaim revocation any time when the lower house (Lok Sabha) of Parliament passes a resolution disapproving of the continuance of the proclamation.

​

Change made in the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978

• On Emergency Provisions:
  • Article 352 was amended with the following changes: The ground of “internal disturbance” was substituted by the ground of “armed rebellion”.
  • Proclamation of Emergency can be issued only when the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened by war or external aggression or by armed rebellion.
  • Internal disturbance not amounting to armed rebellion would not be a ground for the issue of a Proclamation.
  • A provision was included stating that the President shall not issue a Proclamation of Emergency unless the decision of the Union Cabinet for the proclamation of emergency is given to him in writing. 

• On Fundamental Rights:
  • The right to property was taken away from the category of fundamental rights and made a legal right.
  • Article 19(1)(f), which guarantees the citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property and article 31 relating to compulsory acquisition of property have been omitted.
• On DPSPs:
  • A new directive principle has been inserted in article 38, which provides that the State shall secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
• On Federalism:
  • Article 257A which was related to the power of the Central government to send its armed forces or other forces of the union to address a grave situation present in any state/UT was omitted.
• On Presidential Power:
  • Article 74(1) was amended to include a provision that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider any advice tendered to him but the President has to act by the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
  • Earlier, the President has to act by the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
• On Parliament & Parliamentary Functioning:
  • Article 83 and Article 172 were amended to restore the terms of the House of the People and the State Assemblies to five years.
  • Earlier the 42nd CAA had extended the life of LokSabha and Rajya Sabha from 5 to 6 years.
• On Parliamentary Privileges:
  • Article 103 and Article 192 relating respectively to decisions on questions as to disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures have been replaced to provide that the decision on the question as to disqualification, by the President in the case of a member of a State Legislature will be by the opinion of the Election Commission.
• On the Power of High Courts:
  • Article 226 was amended to restore to the High Court's power to issue writs for any other purpose besides the enforcement of fundamental rights.
  • Article 227 was amended to restore to the High Court's power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction.
  • It omitted the provisions which took away the power of the court to decide the election disputes of the president, the vice-president, the prime minister, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.  

NATIONAL EMERGENCY:

• A national emergency can be declared based on war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
• The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote this type of emergency.
• Grounds of declaration:
  • Under Article 352, the president can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • The President can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war or armed rebellion or external aggression
  • When a national emergency is declared on the grounds of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’, it is known as ‘External Emergency’ Article 19 becomes non-enforceable in the court of law.  
  • The articles other than Article 20 and Article 21 can be suspended(non- enforceable) during a time of emergency by consent of the President.

The correct answer is Article 280.

• The finance commission was formed on 22nd November 1951.
• The objective of the finance commission is to maintain financial relations between the center and the states.
• It's headquartered is in Delhi.
• The first executive of the finance commission was Kshitish Chandra Neogy.
• Till now, 15 finance commissions have been constituted.

• The present finance commissioner of India is Nand Kishore Singh.
• The commission consists of the chairman and four other members.
• The qualification of the members include -

1. He should be mentally sound.
2. He should not hold any office of profit.

• The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism.
• Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States.
• Its working is characterised by extensive and intensive consultations with all levels of governments, thus strengthening the principle of cooperative federalism. Its recommendations are also geared towards improving the quality of public spending and promoting fiscal stability.
• The first Finance Commission was set up in 1951 and there have been fifteen so far. Each of them has faced its own unique set of challenges.
• The Fifteenth Finance Commission was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of Planning Commission (as also of the distinction between Plan and non-Plan expenditure) and the introduction of the goods and services tax (GST), which has fundamentally redefined federal fiscal relations.
• Chairman of 15th Finance Commission of India is Shri N.K. Singh.

Sharing of the proceeds of all Union taxes between the Centre and the States under Article 270. 

Article 180 in the Constitution Of India- Power of the Deputy Speaker or other person to perform the duties of the office of, or to act as, Speaker

The correct answer is The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.

• Key features of Indian federalism:
  • There are two or more levels of government.
  • Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government are constitutionally guaranteed.
  • The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both levels of government.
  • Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government.
  • The Apex court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers. 
  • The most important feature of the federal system adopted by the Indian Constitution is the principle that relations between the States and the centre would be based on cooperation. And for this, Independent Judiciary is the prerequisite. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Sources of revenue for each level of government are specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
  • The Constitution contains various measures like the security of tenure to judges, fixed service conditions, and so on to make the judiciary independent of the government.
  • The safeguarded judiciary projects the federal elements of the constitution.

• Federalism
  • It is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
  • Usually, a federation has two levels of government.
  • One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest.
  • The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state.
  • Both these levels of government enjoy their power independent of the other.

The correct answer is 26 November.

Constitution Day - 

• Constitution day is also called " Samvidhan Diwas" or " National Law Day".
• The Government of India declared 26 November as Constitution Day on 19 November 2015 by a gazette notification.
• This day signifies the adoption of the Indian constitution in 1950.
• On this day constitution-related activities take place in schools, demand for equality, and the special parliamentary session takes place.
• The constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and it came into effect on 26 January 1950.​

 ​

• The day also marks the thoughts and ideas of Dr. B.R Ambedkar.
• He is also known as " Father of Indian Constitution".
• He was an economist, jurist, and social reformer and has a great contribution to Indian society.

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. The President of India.

Appointment of Governor

• The Governor in India is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by an electoral college as in case of the President of India.
• He is appointed by the President by warrant under President's hand and seal.
• Thus Governor is considered a nominee of the Central government.
• But, in 1979 Supreme Court held that the office of Governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government but an independent constitutional office, hence is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.

The correct answer is Arvind Kumar.

• Arvind Kumar currently serves as the 27^th Director of Intelligence Bureau.
• He succeeded Rajiv Jain.
• He was appointed on 26^th June 2019.
• He has been working for the Intelligence Bureau since 1991.

• The Director of the Intelligence Bureau is the chief executive of the Intelligence Bureau.
• The DIB is the highest rank in the Indian Police Service.
• The DIB is a member of the Joint Intelligence Committee and the Strategic Policy Group, both of who are tasked with giving advice to the Prime Minister of India regarding national security issues.
• The DIB reports directly to the Indian Prime Minister.

The correct answer is the 89th constitutional amendment.

• The 89th constitutional amendment established a separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
• The act bifurcated the existing " National Commission for  Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes".
• The commission consists of -

1. Chairman
2. Vice-chairman
3. Three other members

• All these members of the commission are appointed by the President of India.

• The function of the commission includes investigating the matters related to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Tribes.
• The body participates in the socio-economic development of the Scheduled Tribes.
• It makes reports and recommendations related to the measure and schemes of the community.
• It also takes care of the rules and laws related to Scheduled Tribes.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only

In 1990, Dinesh Goswami Headed a Committee on Electoral Reforms. Major recommendations of the committee are the following:

• The ordering of re-poll or countermanding should not only be on the report of the returning officer but also to give the Election Commission the requisite powers to appoint investigating agencies, prosecuting agencies, and the constitution of special courts.
• There is a need for an amendment to the anti-defection law to restrict disqualification only to those cases, where an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of the political party, or when he votes or abstains from voting contrary to party whips, directions, etc. only in respect of motion of vote of confidence.
  • ​The question of disqualification of members should not be decided by the speaker or the Chairman of the concerned House.
• Changes in the voting pattern and shift to proportional representation of the list system, instead of the present voting system should be made.
• There should be fresh delimitation based on the 1981 census and there should be a provision for rotation of reserved seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• No candidates should be allowed to contest an election from more than two constituencies.
• The age of Candidates for assembly seats should be reduced to 21 and for the Council to 25.
• To discourage non-serious candidates, the security deposit for Lok Sabha should be increased to Rs. 5000 and for Assembly, it should be increased to Rs. 2500.
  • ​The amount should be forfeited if the candidate fails to secure one-fourth of the total votes.
  • The member of proposals to nomination should also be increased.
• A model code of conduct is framed which would include issues relating to the use of official machinery, transport, media, funds, etc.
• There should be a ban on the transfer of officials and staff concerned with the elections.
  • The Commission and the Central Government should continue the periodic revision of election expenses in consulta­tion with the Election Commission.
  • There should be a six-month time limit for holding bye-elections.
• Army and Para-military personnel, diplomats, and others placed outside India should be allowed proxy voting. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Committee recommended that State assistance should be given only in kind and not in cash. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Extensive restructuring of the accounting of election expenses is needed.
• Monitoring of expenses should be undertaken by the Election Commission, and a speedy trial of election disputes through the help of ad hoc judges should be ensured.
• There should be provision to punish plying mechanically-propelled vehicles, carrying lethal weapons and firearms, or distributing liquor on, the polling day.
• Electronic voting machines should be used to put an end to manipulating and tempering. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Time following question hour in Parliament.

• Zero Hour:
  • It is a time gap between the question hour and beginning of the parliamentary session. 
  • It starts at 12 noon sharp.
  • It is an innovative method used by the Indian parliament.
  • In this time, members can raise important issues of national importance.
  • The time duration of zero-hour is of 30 minutes.

• In Rajya Sabha, the proceeding starts with zero hour.
• In Lok sabha, the proceeding starts with Question hour and then zero hour.