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The correct answer is Lotus.

• Lotus:
  • It is the national flower of India.
  • Its scientific name is Nelumbo Nucifera Gaertn.
  • It is a sacred flower.
  • It is also known as Bean of India.
  • It is considered an auspicious symbol of prosperity.
  • It has an Indian identity and heritage. 

Other National Symbols:

The correct answer is Lotus.

• Lotus (Nelumbo Nucifera Gaertn) is the National Flower of India.
• It is a sacred flower and occupies a unique position in the art and mythology of ancient India and has been an auspicious symbol of Indian culture since time immemorial.

The correct answer is 1977.

• The strength became 200 from the Sixth (1977–80) Legislative Assembly onwards.

• Rajasthan Legislative Assembly 
  • The evolution of the House of people's representatives in Rajasthan has an important place in the constitutional history of India as it was the outcome of the merger of 22 princely States of the erstwhile Rajputana with the Union of India.
  • As per the provisions of Article 168 of the newly framed Constitution of India:
    • Every state had to establish a legislature consisting of one or two Houses.
    • Rajasthan opted for unicameral character and its legislature is known as the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly.
    • The legislature, which is running its Fifteenth term, was first elected by the adult franchise in 1952 and this process is continuing with the exceptions of 1967, 1977, 1980, and 1992 when the Presidential Rule was in force.
    • The strength of the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly which is determined by the delimitation Commission was 160 in 1952 and presently stands as 200 after many more recommendations of the same Commission.

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• ​Important people in the 15^th Rajasthan Legislative Assembly
  • ​Speaker: Dr. CP Joshi
  • Chief Minister: Ashok Gehlot
  • Leader of opposition: Gulab Chand Kataria

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (D).

• The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the affairs of the State.
• The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals for legislation.
• The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of National Development Council.
• But it's not the constitutional duty of the Chief Minister and the National Development Council is a statutory body. Hence the statement C is not correct.
• The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of  Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council as if the Governor requires.
• Hence the correct answer is (A), (B) and (D).

• Article 167 (Constitutional Duties)  
  • Duties of Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of information to Governor, etc It shall be the duty of the Chief Minister of each State
  • To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation;
  • To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for; and
  • If the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council
• Duties of Chief Minister
  • The leader of the legislative assembly: In the matter of determining the internal policies of the State, the decision of the Chief Minister is final. He remains responsible to the Legislative Assembly for the acts performed by the State Council of Ministers. He comes to the rescue of a minister if he faces any difficulty during the debates in the Assembly. He has to bear the responsibility of getting the important bills passed. He has to keep good relations with the people and see that efforts are made to improve the condition of the state.
  • The Chief Adviser to the Governor: The governor is advised by the Chief Minister so that he can perform his functions. The Chief Minister acts as a bridge of communication between the Governor and the Council of Ministers. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor performs his tasks in matters like summoning, proroguing or dissolving the Legislative Assembly.
  • The Leader of the Council of Ministers: The constitution gives supremacy to the Chief Minister by making him the leader of the ministers, thus it is his responsibility to maintain unity among the ministers. He monitors the working of all the ministers and oversees the meetings of the Council of Ministers.

The correct answer is All of the above.

• The State government appointed Dr. Shiv Singh Rathore as the new chairman of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission.
• ​Rajasthan Public Service Commission has one chairman and seven members.
• This post is constitutional and is appointed on the orders of His Excellency the Governor of the state.
• An Indian Administrative Service officer is appointed to the post of Secretary in the Commission Secretariat.
• All administrative and financial functions are performed by the Secretary. There are deputy secretaries and exam controllers to assist the secretary. 
• The Commission Chairman and members are employed in the Commission for a maximum of 6 years or 62 years of age, whichever is earlier.

• Bhupendra Singh has retired from the post of DGP.
  • He is the sixth IPS officer to become the chairman of the commission.
• Four new members were also appointed:
  • Manju Sharma
  • Sangeeta Arya
  • Jaswant Rathi
  • Babulal Katara
• The others were Habib Khan, LK Panwar, Mahender Lal Kumawat, Devender Singh and PS Yadav.

The correct answer is New Delhi.

• New Delhi is the headquarters of Sahitya Akademi.
• The Sahitya Akademi Award is a literary honor, that is conferred by India’s National Academy of Letters, Sahitya Akademi annually to writers of the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the 24 listed languages.
• The winners will be honored with a copper plaque and prize money of Rs 1 lakh.

• Sahitya Akademi Award 2019 Winners:

  Language	Title & Genre	Author
  English	An Era of Darkness (Non-Fiction)	Shashi Tharoor
  Hindi	Chheelate Hue Apne Ko (Poetry)	Nand Kishore Acharya
  Bengali	Ghumer Darja Thele (Essays)	Chinmoy Guha
  Bodo	Akhai Athumniphrai (Poetry)	Phukan Ch. Basumatary
  Santhali	Marom (Novel)	Shyam Besra

• It is to be noted Santhali language was used in Rajya Sabha for the first time.
• In 2005 Bodo and Santhali were introduced in Sahitya Akademi Award.
• The first award was given in 1955.

The correct answer is Centre-state relations. 

• The Punchhi Commission is related to centre-state Relations.

• The Punchhi Commission was constituted by the Government of India on 27th April 2007 as a Commission on Centre-State relations.
• It was chaired by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi who was formerly the Chief Justice of India from 18 January 1998 until his retirement on 9 October 1998.
• The Commission came into effect on the 27th of April, 2007 to relook into the problems and issues in Centre-State relations in India. 
• To look into the new issues of Centre-State relations keeping in view the changes that have taken place in the polity and economy of India.
• Since the Sarkaria Commission had last looked at the issue of Centre-State relations over two decades ago.
• The Commission examined and reviewed the working of the existing arrangements between the Union and States, various pronouncements of the Courts in regard to powers, functions, and responsibilities.
• The Commission made 273 recommendations in its seven-volume report presented to Government on 30 March 2010.

• Panchayat Raj :
  • The Panchayat raj is a political system, originating from the Indian subcontinent.
  • The word raj means "rule" and panchayat means "assembly" (ayat) of five (panch).
  • The Council of five officials is the system of local self-government of villages in rural India.
  • The Panchayati Raj Institutions are the nodal point at the district level.
  • Their role is to help plan, coordinate, monitor, and wherever required regulate the implementation of various national programs.
  •  There are three levels of Panchayat Raj in India:
    • the Gram Panchayats at the village level
    • the Ksetra Panchayats at the block level 
    • the District Panchayats at the district level
• Election commission :
  • The commission was established in 1950 and originally only had a Chief Election Commissioner.
  • Two additional Commissioners were appointed to the commission for the first time on 16 October 1989.
    • But they had a very short tenure, ending on 1 January 1990.
  • The Election Commissioners are assisted by Deputy Election Commissioners, who are generally IAS officers.
  • They are further assisted by Directors General, Principal Secretaries, and Secretaries and Under Secretaries.
  • At the state level, the Election Commission is assisted by the Chief Electoral Officer of the State, who is an IAS officer of Principal Secretary rank. 
  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India.
  • The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
• Fundamental rights:
  • A fundamental right is a group of rights that have been recognized by the Supreme Court as requiring a high degree of protection from government encroachment.
  • These rights are specifically identified in the Constitution or have been found under Due Process.
  • Fundamental rights of the Constitution:
    •  Right to equality
    •  Right to freedom
    •  Right against exploitation
    •  Right to freedom of religion
    •  Cultural and educational rights
    •  Right to constitutional remedies

   The correct answer is 22 July 2019.

• The Lok Sabha had passed the Right to Information (Amendment) Bill, 2019 on 22nd July 2019.
  • ​In this amendment, it is proposed to amend the Right to Information Act, 2005 so as to provide that the term of office of, and the salaries, allowances and other terms and conditions of service of, the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners and the State Chief Information Commissioner and the State Information Commissioners, shall be such as may be prescribed by the Central Government.

• Right to Information Act 2005:
  • Right to Information Act 2005 mandates timely response to citizen requests for government information.
  • It is an initiative taken by the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions to provide a– RTI Portal Gateway to the citizens for quick search of information on the details of first Appellate Authorities, PIOs, etc. amongst others, besides access to RTI related information/disclosures published on the web by various Public Authorities under the government of India as well as the State Governments
• The objective of the Right to Information Act:
  • The basic object of the Right to Information Act is to empower the citizens, promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Government, contain corruption, and make our democracy work for the people in the real sense.
  • It goes without saying that an informed citizen is better equipped to keep necessary vigil on the instruments of governance and make the government more accountable to the governed.
  • The Act is a big step towards making the citizens informed about the activities of the Government.

The correct answer is Omprakash Rawat.

• Om Prakash Rawat is a retired 1977 batch Indian Administrative Service officer of the Madhya Pradesh cadre
• He served as 22nd Chief Election Commissioner of India.
• He has also served as one of the two Election Commissioners of India and the Public Enterprise Secretary of India. 

• Governor of RBI - Shaktikanta Das
• Commissioner of Election Commission - Mr. Sushil Chandra and Mr. Rajiv Kumar
• National Security Advisor - Ajit Doval
• Chief of Army Staff - General Manoj Mukund Naravane
• Chief of Airforce - Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria
• Chief of Indian Navy - Admiral Karambir Singh

The correct answer is Justice J. S. Khehar.

• Jagdish Singh Khehar (born 28 August 1952) was the 44th Chief Justice of India (CJI).
• Khehar is the first CJI from the Sikh community.
• He has been a judge in the Supreme Court of India from 13 September 2011 to 27 August 2017 upon superannuation.
• He served for a brief period but gave many landmark Judgements such as the Triple Talaq and the Right to Privacy Judgement.
• He was succeeded by Justice Deepak Misra.

• Current Chief Justice of India - Sharad Arvind Bobde
• Sharad Arvind Bobde will retire on 23 April.
• Sharad Arvind Bobde is the 47^th Chief Justice of India.
• He is also serving as the Chancellor of Maharashtra National Law University, Mumbai, and Maharashtra National Law University, Nagpur.
• Article 32 affirms the right to move the Supreme Court if a fundamental right is violated.

The correct answer is Ajit Kumar Doval.

• The National Security Advisor is the senior official on the National Security Council of India, and the chief adviser to the Prime Minister of India on national security policy and international affairs.
• Ajit Doval is the current NSA and has the same rank as a Union Cabinet Minister.
• Ajit Kumar Doval, KC PPM is the fifth and current National Security Advisor to the Prime Minister of India.
• He previously served as the Director of the Intelligence Bureau in 2004–05, after spending a decade as the head of its operation wing.

• Chief Secretary of India - Rajiv Gauba
• Minister of Education - Ramesh Pokhriyal
• Minister of Finance - Nirmala Sitharaman
• Minister of Home Affairs - Amit Shah
• Minister of Defence - Rajnath Singh

The correct answer is Option 3.

• President may, with the consent of the state government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the Centre.
  • Conversely, the governor of a state may, with the consent of the Central government, entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state.
• Constitution also makes a provision for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state.
  • But, in this case, the delegation is by the Parliament and not by the president. Notably, the same thing cannot be done by the state legislature.

• Our Constitution distributes between the Union and the States not only the legislative power but also the executive power, more or less on the same lines.
• The result is that it is not competent for a State to exercise administrative power with respect to Union subjects, or for the Union to take up the administration of any State function, unless authorised in that behalf by any provision in the Constitution.
• In administrative matters, a rigid division like this may lead to occasional deadlocks.
• To avoid such a situation, the Constitution has engrafted provisions enabling the Union as well as a State to make a mutual delegation of their respective administrative functions:
  • As to the delegation of Unlon functions, there are two methods:
    • With the consent of the State Government, the President may, without any legislative sanction, entrust any executive function to that State
    • Irrespective of any consent of the State concerned, Parliament may, while legislating with respect to Union subject, confer powers upon a State or its officers, relating to such subject. Such delegation has, in short, a statutory basis.
    • Conversely, with the consent of the Government of India, the Governor of a State may entrust on the Union Government or its officers, functions relating to a State subject, so far as that State is concerned

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

LOK ADALAT - 

• Lok Adalat is a forum where the cases (or disputes) which are pending in a court or which are at pre-litigation stage (not yet brought before a court) are compromised or settled in an amicable manner.
• The Supreme Court has explained the meaning of the institution of Lok Adalat in the following way:
  • The ‘Lok Adalat’ is an old form of adjudicating system prevailed in ancient India and its validity has not been taken away even in the modern days too.
  • The word ‘Lok Adalat’ means ‘People’s Court’.
  • This system is based on Gandhian principles.
  • It is one of the components of the ADR (Alternative Dispute Resolution) system.
• The first Lok Adalat camp in the post-independence era was organized in Gujarat in 1982.
• The institution of Lok Adalat has been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Benefits

• According to the Supreme Court, the benefits under Lok Adalat are as follows:
  • There is no court fee and if court fee is already paid the amount will be refunded if the dispute is settled at Lok Adalat. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The basic features of Lok Adalat are the procedural flexibility and speedy trial of the disputes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • There is no strict application of procedural laws like the Civil Procedure Code and the Evidence Act while assessing the claim by Lok Adalat.
  • The parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge through their counsel which is not possible in regular courts of law. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The award by the Lok Adalat is binding on the parties and it has the status of a decree of a civil court and it is non-appealable, which does not cause the delay in the settlement of disputes finally. Hence, statement 4 is NOT correct.

 The correct answer is education: State list

• The Parliament has the power to legislate on the Union list under Seventh Schedule.
• The state government has the power to legislate over the items mentioned under the state list in the seventh schedule.
• Both the Parliament and the State has the power legislate over concurrent list under Seventh Schedule.
• In case of any conflict of decision over the concurrent list, the union powers prevail over the State Power to legislate over the concurrent list. 
• The residuary power is vested upon the union government which is exercised by the Parliament. 

1. Union List: Defence, banking, communication, etc.
2. State List: police, agriculture, land, trade, etc.
3. Concurrent List: education, forests, etc.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

• National Commission for SC and ST was created by the 65th Amendment Act, 1990.
  • It replaced the single-member special officer for SC and ST.
  • It constituted a multimember body, the National Commission for SC and ST under Article 338.
• It was bifurcated into the National Commission of Scheduled Castes and National Commission of Scheduled Tribes by the 89th Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is correct.
  • ​It added a new Article 338-A.
• Composition
  • Chairman, Vice-Chairman, and three other members.
  • All members are appointed by the President.
  • Their condition of service and tenure is determined by the President.
  • Tenure: three years.

• The 102^nd Amendment Act, 2018 granted Constitutional status to the National Commission of Backward Classes.
• It added Article 338-B to the Indian Constitution.  

The correct answer is Mumbai.

• National Safety Council is a non-profit, self-financing body at the national level in India.
  • National Safety Council was formed on 4^th March 1966.
  • It was established to generate, develop, and sustain a voluntary movement on Safety, Health, and Environment at the national level.
  • It was set up by the Ministry of Labour, Government of India.
  • The headquarters of the National Safety Council, India (NSC) is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
  • It was registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and the Bombay Public Trust Act, 1950.
• To major activities performed by National Safety Council includes:
  • Organising and conducting specialised training programmes/courses, conferences, seminars & workshops.
  • Conducting consultancy studies such as safety audits, safety ratings, hazard evaluation & risk assessment.
  • Designing and developing HSE promotional materials & publications.

The correct answer is 23^rd March 1998.

• The State Women’s Commission of Madhya Pradesh was established on 23^rd March 1998.

• The State Women’s Commission was constituted to take prompt action on atrocities and crimes against women.
• It was constituted under section 3 of Madhya Pradesh State Women Act 1995.
• The commission is a statutory body with the powers of a civil court.

• The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established on 31^st January 1992.
• It was constituted as per the National Commission for Women Act,1990.
• On 18^th January 1999, Vibha Parthasarathy was appointed as the head of the commission or Chairperson.
• The present head of the commission is Rekha Sharma, she assumed the charge of Chairperson on 7^th August 2018. 
• Rekha Sharma is the current Chairperson of the National Commission for Women in India

The Correct answer is The Attorney General Of India.

• The second schedule consists of provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of:

1. The President of India
2. The Governors of states
3. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
5. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
6. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
7. The Judges of the Supreme Court
8. The Judges of the High Courts
9. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India

• Hence it does not contain the provision of The Attorney general of India. Hence option 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Vice President.

• Vice President of India
  • Part V of the Constitution of India discusses the office of the Vice-President of India.
  • Articles 63 to Article 73 deal with the qualifications, election, and removal of the Vice-President of India.
  • Article 63 states that there shall be a vice-president of India.
  • The Vice President of India is the second-highest constitutional office in India after the President. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • The Vice President acts as President in the absence of the President due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
  • Article 64 states that the Vice-President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
  • Article 65 states that Vice-President shall act as President in the vacancy of the office of the President until the new President is elected.
  • Article 66 deals with the provision of the Election of the Vice-President.
  • Article 67 mentions the Term of Office of Vice-President.
  • Article 68 states the Vacancy of office of the Vice-President.
  • Article 69 deals with Oaths & Affirmation by the Vice-President.
  • Article 71 deals with matters relating to or connected with, the election of a President and Vice-President.
  • Venkaiah Naidu is the current Vice President of India. (2021)

The correct answer is From the Constitution of India.

• The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India.
• In our country, everything derives its powers from the constitution, either directly or indirectly.
• State and the central government get authorization from the constitution of India.

• India, also known as Bharat, is a Union of States.
• It is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic with a parliamentary system of government.
• The Republic is governed in terms of the Constitution of India which was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into force on 26th January 1950. 
• The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of government which is federal in structure with certain unitary features. 
• The constitutional head of the Executive of the Union is the President. 
• As per Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the council of the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head to aid and advise the President, who shall exercise his/her functions in accordance to the advice.
• The real executive power is thus vested in the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head.

The correct answer is The 42^nd Constitution Amendment.

• Fundamental Duties are the fundamental obligations of the states to its citizens and the duties and the rights of the citizens to the State.

• These duties set out in Part IV–A of the constitution.

• By the 42nd Constitution Amendment, Fundamental Duties were added.

​ 

• 51A Fundamental duties:
• ​It shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
  • A parent or guardian should provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. 
  • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement.
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
  • To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  • To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  • To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
  • To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.
  • To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;
  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

The correct answer is a and d.

• Odisha Legislative Assembly passed the resolution for the creation of Legislative Council in September 2018.
• 1/12th members of the Legislative Council are elected by registered graduates.
• Hence statement a and d are correct.
• As of January 2020, at present, six states have a legislative council.
• Uttar Pradesh Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana,  and Andhra Pradesh.
• Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Rajasthan and Assam are pending in Parliament.
• Hence statements b and c are incorrect. 

• Under Article 169 of the constitution, Parliament may by law create or abolish the Legislative Council in a state, if the Legislative Assembly of that state passes a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
• Recently, The Legislative Council of Jammu and Kashmir was formally abolished. 

The correct answer is ​Members of Parliament and members of Sate Legislative Assemblies.

• ​Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the authority to conduct elections to the Office of President is vested in the Election Commission of India.
•  The President of India is elected by the electoral college which consists of Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
•  The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Pondicherry have been authorized to be the part of Electoral College by the 70th Amendment of 1992.

• Under Article 61 of the constitution, the president may also be removed before the expiry of the term through impeachment for violating the Constitution of India by the Parliament of India.
• The process may start in either of the two houses of the parliament.
• The Powers of the President-​
  • Serve as commander in chief of the armed forces.
  • Commission officers of the armed forces.
  • Grant reprieves and pardons for federal offenses (except impeachment)
  • Convene Congress in special sessions.
  • Receive ambassadors.
  • Take care that the laws be faithfully executed.
  • Wield the "executive power"

The correct answer is Vijaybhai Rupani.

• He is the 16th Chief Minister of Gujarat from 7 August 2016.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

• All the statement below are correct
  • The 102nd amendment gave Constitutional status to Constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes.
  • The 103rd amendment 10% Reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS).
  • The 104th amendment removed the reserved seats for the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies and extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states assemblies for the next 10 year.

• Some of the important amendment
  • 42nd Amendment 1976
    • Added fundamental duties in Part IVA (Article 51A) based on Swaran Singh committee recommendation. 
    • Added part XIV A of tribunal services administration and other services (Article 323 A and Article 323 B).
    • Power of court of judicial review to be diminished.
    • It inserted the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity in the preamble.
    • 42nd Amendment also called as Mini Constitution of India due to various changes
  • 61st Amendment in 1988
    • It decreased the Voting age from 21 to 18 for Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies elections.
    • Voting is a constitutional right under Article 326 of the Indian Constitution.
  • 69th Constitutional Amendment
    • Delhi was given the status of National Capital Territory and a seven-member council of ministers was established in Delhi (10% of seats of assembly). 
  • 86th Amendment in 2002
    • It included free and compulsory Right to Education as a Fundamental Right (Article 21) for children of 6 to 14 years.
    • Inserted fundamental duty Article 51A – “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to educate their child between the age of six and fourteen years”.

The correct answer is 2 only.

The below table is correctly matched:

• The office of the Governor is the highest office in the state.
• The Governor is also called the first-person of state.
• The Governor is appointed and removed by the President of India.
• Governor holds the office till the President of India
• Condition for the office of governor
  • He should be an Indian Citizen.
  • He should be 35 years old or more.
  • He should not hold any office of profit.
  • He cannot be a member of parliament or state legislature.

• The order of precedence for the Governor within the state is 4 and outside the state is 8.
• The first governor of Rajasthan was Gurumukh Nihal Singh.

​The correct answer is New Delhi.

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation(CDSCO) under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India.
• Its headquarter is located in New Delhi.
• Dr. Harsh Vardhan is the union minister of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.

• Drug Controller General of India: Dr. V.G. Somani. 

The correct answer is the International Monetary Fund.

• The formation of the IMF was initiated in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference.
• IMF came into operation on 27th December 1945 and is today it is an international organization that consists of 189 member countries.
• Its Headquartered is in Washington, D.C.
• Purpose:
  • Promote international monetary co-operation, facilitate international trade, foster sustainable economic growth, and make resources available to members experiencing balance of payments difficulties.
  • The IMF’s fundamental mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system.
• Kristalina Georgieva currently serves as Managing Director of the International Monetary Fund.

The Correct Answer is Kolkata High Court.

• The oldest High Court in India is the Kolkata High Court.
• It has control over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands of the State of West Bengal and the Union Territories.
• The architecture of the High Court building is based on the Ypres Cloth Hall in Belgium.
• The court has a judge-sanctioned strength of 72.
• The High Court of Kolkata is one of the three High Courts in India established by Letters of Patent issued by Her Majesty Queen Victoria at the Presidency Towns, dated 26 June 1862, and is India's oldest High Court.
• Under the High Courts Act, 1861, which was followed by the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William, it was established as the High Court of Judicature at Fort William on July 1, 1862.
• Despite having officially changed the name of the town from Calcutta to Kolkata in 2001, the Court maintained the old name as an institution.
• On July 5, 2016, the Cabinet approved the bill to rename it as Kolkata High Court along with the renaming of its two other counterparts in Chennai and Mumbai, but the old name is still retained by the High Court.

Madras High Court:-

• After the Kolkata High Court in Kolkata, the Madras High Court is India's second oldest High Court.
• It is situated in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. 
• The court is one of the three High Courts in India, created by letters of a patent issued by Queen Victoria, dated 26 June 1862, in the three presidential towns of Madras, Bombay, and Calcutta.
• It exercises original jurisdiction over the city of Chennai and appeals jurisdiction over the entire state of Tamil Nadu and the territory of the Union of Puducherry, as well as extraordinary original civil and criminal jurisdiction under the letters of patent and special original jurisdiction under the Constitution of India for the issue of lawsuits.

• It is made up of 74 judges and a chief justice who is responsible for the general policy of judicial administration.

Karnataka High Court:-

• It is officially known as Karnataka Uccha Nyayalaya.
• It is situated in Bangalore, Karnataka's capital city.
• Previously, it was the Mysore High Court.
• A red brick structure known as Attara Kacheri serves as the High Court.
• It is in front of the Soudha of Vidhana, which is the seat of the Karnataka legislature.

• Our Constitution provides a clear mandate for democratic Decentralisation not only through the Directive Principles of State Policy which exhorts the State to promote Panchayati Raj Institutions but more specifically now through the 73rd and 74th Amendments of the Constitution which seek to create an institutional framework for ushering in grassroots democracy through the medium of genuinely self-governing local bodies in both urban and rural areas of the country.
• Thus, the Constitution through the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 aims to provide for :
• Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages;
• Constitution of Panchayats at the village and other level or levels;
• Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population for membership of Panchayats and office of Chairpersons in Panchayats at each level;
• Reservation of not less than one-third of the seats for women.
  • Hence option C is correct.
• fixing tenure of 5 years for Panchayats and holding elections within a period of 6 months in the event of supersession of any Panchayat.
• Devolution by the State Legislature of powers and responsibilities upon the Panchayats with respect to the preparation of plans for economic developments and social justice and for the implementation of development schemes.
  • Hence option B is not correct.
• sound finance of the Panchayats by securing authorization from State Legislatures for grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State, as also an assignment to, or appropriation by, the Panchayats of the revenues of designated taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
• Political accountability of state executive is not a novel feature introduced through the insertion of Part IX but was already been ensured through various mechanisms since the adoption of the Constitution e.g. removal of Chief Minister, the state council of ministers, appointment and removal of Governor, etc.
  • Hence option A is not correct

The Directive Principles are listed in  Part IV of the Indian Constitution and it clearly states that it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in the process of law-making.

• There are mainly three categories of these principles – Socialist Directives, Gandhian Directives, and Liberal Intellectual Directives.

• DPSP – Gandhian Principles
  • These principles are based on the Gandhian ideology used to represent the program of reconstruction enunciated by Gandhi during the national movement. Under various articles, they direct the state to:
  • Article 40 Organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government
  • Article 43 Promote cottage industries on an individual or co-operation basis in rural areas
  • Article 43B Promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies
  • Article 46 Promote the educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and other weaker sections of the society and protect them from social injustice and exploitation
  • Article 47 Prohibit the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health.
  • Article 48 Prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves, and other milch and draught cattle and improve their breeds.

• DPSP – Socialistic Principles
  • They are the principles that aim at providing social and economic justice and set the path towards the welfare state.
  • Article 38 Promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order through justice—social, economic and political and to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
  • Article 39 Secure citizens: Right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens
  • Article 39A Promote equal justice and free legal aid to the poor
  • Article 41 In cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement, secure citizens: Right to work, Right to education, Right to public assistance.
  • Article 42 Make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
  • Article 43 Secure a living wage, a decent standard of living and social and cultural opportunities for all workers.
  • Article 43A Take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • Article 47 Raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health.
• DPSP – Liberal-Intellectual Principles
  • Article 44 Secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country
  • Article 45 Provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years
  • Article 48 Organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines
  • Article 48A To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife
  • Article 49 Protect monuments, places and objects of artistic or historic interest which are declared to be of national importance
  • Article 50 Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State
  • Article 51 Promote international peace and security and maintain just and honourable relations between nations

Thus, we can say that Freedom of Business and Religion is not a Directive Principle.

The correct answer is Formation of Gram Panchayats.

• Article 40 of the Constitution which states one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. 
• The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines to the central and state governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.

• Some of the important article related to the Directive Principle of State Policy are
  • Article 38: To Promote the welfare of people by securing social order permeated by justice-social, economic and political -to minimize inequalities in income status, facilities, and opportunities.
  • Article 40: Organisation of village Panchayat.
  • Article 41: To secure a social order for the promotion of the welfare of the people.
  • Article 44: Uniform Civil code for the Citizen.
  • Article 46: Promotion of economic interests of Scheduled caste, Scheduled Tribe, and other sections.
  • Article 50: Separation of Judiciary from Executive.
  • Article 51: Promotion of international peace and secure it. 

 The incorrectly matched pair is 11th December 1946: Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly.

• The following table explains the timeline of the events:

• Timeline from constitutional assembly to the enactment of the Indian Constitution
• 1946
  • 6 December 1946: Formation of the Constitution Assembly.
  • 9 December 1946: The first meeting was held.
  • 11 December 1946: President appointed - Rajendra Prasad.
  • 13 December 1946: An 'Objective Resolution' was presented by Jawaharlal Nehru, underlying principles of the constitution, which later became the Preamble of the constitution.
• 1947
  • 22 January 1947: Objective resolution unanimously adopted.
  • 22 July 1947: National flag adopted.
  • 15 August 1947: Achieved independence. India Split into Dominion of India and Dominion of Pakistan.
  • 29 August 1947: Drafting Committee appointed with Dr. B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman.
• 1948-1950
  • 16 July 1948: Along with Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, V. T. Krishnamachari was also elected as second vice-president of the Constituent Assembly. (The assembly had 2 Vice-Presidents)
  • 26 November 1949: 'Constitution of India' passed and adopted by the assembly.
  • 24 January 1950: Last meeting of Constituent Assembly. 'constitution of India' was accepted and signed by all members. (with 395 Articles, 8 Schedules, 22 Parts)
  • 26 January 1950: 'Constitution of India' came into force.
  • It took 2 Years, 11 Months, 18 Days to complete our constitution.

The correct answer is the Supreme Court of India.

• The Supreme Court of India is the guardian of the Indian Constitution.
• The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial court under the Constitution of India.
• Article 124 provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme court.
• The Supreme court of India was established on 28^th January 1950.
• As per Article 32, Supreme Court is the guardian/protector of fundamental rights and any person whose fundamental rights are violated can directly approach the Supreme Court for a remedy and any matter regarding the enforcement of fundamental rights comes under the original jurisdiction of the supreme court.

• After the appointment of the new four justices on 18^th September 2019, the strength of the Supreme court increases from 30 to 34.
• Newly appointed judges are Krishna Murari, SR Bhat, V Ramasubramanian, and Hrishikesh Roy.
• Parliament has the power to increase or decrease the number of judges in the Supreme court.
• The chief justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
• Sharad Arvind Bobde is the 47^th and current Chief Justice of India.

• At present, there are 25 High Courts in India.
• The Parliament of India consists of the President of India, the Rajya Sabha, and the Lok Sabha.
• The Prime Minister of India is the real executive authority.

The correct answer is Odisha.

• British changed the name of the state from Odisha to Orissa.
• Bihar and Odisha were separated from Bengal Province to form the Bihar and Orissa Province in 1912.
• Bihar and Orissa Province was split to form Bihar Province and Orissa Province in 1936.
• British misspelled the state's name as ‘Orissa’, instead of ‘Odisha’.
• The state’s name was officially changed from Orissa to Odisha in 2011.
• The old name of Odisha was Kalinga.
• The famous Kalinga battle took place in Odisha.
• The tagline of Odisha is "The soul of incredible India".
• Konark temple is located in Odisha.

• Odia is the official language of Odisha.
• Odia is the first Indo-Aryan language to get classical status.

The correct answer is Article 356.

• According to Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, President takes over the administration of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down.
• Article 356 is also known as President's rule or constitutional emergency.
• There are two grounds to issue a State emergency.
  1. Breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state.
  2. Failure of the state to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the center.
• It is necessary that Parliament must approve the proclamation of President's rule within two months by a simple majority.
• President can revoke Article 356 at any time.

• President's rule can be extended to a maximum period of three years subject to the approval of the Parliament every six months.
• India borrowed this provision from the Government of India Act 1935.

​

• Article 83 of the Indian constitution deals with the duration of houses of Parliament.
• President can proclaim a national emergency under Article 352.
• Article 343 of the Indian constitution deals with the official languages.

The correct answer is Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

• Dr.​ Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India.
  • He was in office from 1952 to 1962.
  • He was elected by the Electoral College, following the first General Elections in 1951 and got re-elected in 1957.
• Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan and Zakir Hussain were the 2nd and 3rd Presidents of India respectively.

• The president is called " The first citizen of India".
  • Article 52 comes under Part V of the Indian constitution.
    • It deals with the "President of India".
  • Article 54 deals with the election of the president.
  • Article 61 deals with the process of impeachment of the president.
  • Article 72 deals with the power of the president to grant pardon.
• The parliament is composed of "Lok Sabha", "Rajya Sabha" and the "President".
• Lok Sabha is the lower house of the parliament.
• Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the parliament.

• Ram Nath Kovind took office as the 14th president of India.

The correct answer is Members of Lok Sabha.

• Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by Members of Lok Sabha.

• He is elected by members of  Lok Sabha from amongst its members, as soon as, after the first meeting. 
• He remains in his office during the life of the Lok Sabha. He vacates office earlier in any of the following cases: 
  • If he ceases to be a member of Lok Sabha; 
  • If he resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker; and 
  • If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha. 
• Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days' advance notice.
• He maintains order and decorum in the House for conducting its business. 
• He adjourns the House to suspend the meeting in the absence of a quorum (presence of only 1-10th of the total strength of the House). 
• He does not vote in the first instance, but he can exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie (deadlock)

• The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha can be 552 members.
• Out of these 552 members, 530 members are elected from the States, and 20 members are elected from the Union Territories.
• President has the power to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

The correct answer is 25 Years.

• The minimum age to contest an election for Lower House (Lok Sabha) in India is 25 years.

• To become a member of Lok Sabha, a candidate should have the following eligibility criteria:
  • The candidate should be a citizen of India.
  • The candidate should have at least 25 years of age.
  • The candidate should not hold an office of profit under the Indian government or the government of any other state.
  • The candidate should not be an unstable mind.

• To become a member of Parliament, one should not be less than 30 years of age in the case of Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is 25 years.

• 25 years is the minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha.

• Article 84 (b) of Constitution of India provides that the minimum age for becoming a candidate for Lok Sabha election shall be 25 years.  
• Lok Sabha [Article 81]:
  • Its maximum strength is 550 + 2 members of its Anglo-Indian Community, which includes 530 members from States and 20 from Union Territories.
  • The present strength of Lok Sabha is 545.
  • The normal term of the Lok Sabha is 5 years, but it may be dissolved earlier by the President.
  • The normal term of Lok Sabha can be extended by an Act passed by Parliament itself during Emergency.
  • The extension cannot be made for a period exceeding one year at a time.
  • Such extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the proclamation of Emergency ceases to operate.
  • On dissolution of the Lok Sabha all matters pending before the House lapse.

• Zilla Parishad (ZP) can take as many meetings as it wishes, but the gap between the two meetings of Zilla Parishad should not be greater than 3 months. Hence option 2. is Correct.
• That is a minimum of 4 meetings should be held in a year.
• If Zilla Parishad had not called any meeting for over 3 months the Divisional commissioner has the authority to call the meeting.
• If 1/5th member of Zilla Parishad demands a special meeting via a resolution, then the President of ZP is obliged to call for the special meeting. Such a meeting should be held within 30 days of the resolution. Hence statement B is Correct.
• Standing Committee should hold its meeting once a month.
• The meeting of Zilla Parishad cannot be held outside the district.

• Zilla Parishad (ZP) can take as many meetings as it wishes, but the gap between the two meetings of Zilla Parishad should not be greater than 3 months. Hence statement A is Correct.
• That is a minimum of 4 meetings should be held in a year.
• If Zilla Parishad had not called any meeting for over 3 months the Divisional commissioner has the authority to call the meeting.
• If 1/5th member of Zilla Parishad demands a special meeting via a resolution, then the President of ZP is obliged to call for the special meeting. Such a meeting should be held within 30 days of the resolution. Hence statement B is Correct.
• If the President does not calls for the special meeting despite 1/5th members notice then Divisional Commissioner can call the meeting.
• Standing Committee should hold its meeting once a month.
• The meeting of Zilla Parishad cannot be held outside the district.

The correct answer is None of the above.

• The following provisions are not mentioned in the Indian constitution but these are followed as a convention (not binding).
  • The person to be appointed as Governor of a State should be a domicile of some other State of the Indian Union.
  • There should be at least one Muslim judge in the Supreme Court so as to ensure its secular character.
  • The chairman of the public accounts committee of the Parliament should belong to a party in the opposition.
  • Hence the correct answer is None of the above provisions are mentioned in Indian Constitutions.

• Some of the other conventions are being followed in the Indian Polity.
  • If the President is from the north then the Vice President should be from the south or vice versa.
  • if the speaker of Lok sabha is from the ruling party then the deputy speaker should be from the opposition party.
  • Such conventions are followed as practice for years but not binding.

The correct answer is 1978.

• Right to Property ceased to be a fundamental right with the 44th Constitution Amendment in 1978.
  • It was made a Constitutional right under Article 300A.
  • Article 300A requires the state to follow due procedure and authority of law to deprive a person of his or her private property.

• The concept of property and ownership are very closely related to each other.
  • The two are mutually interdependent and correlative.
  • One necessary implies the existence of the other.
  • There can be no property without ownership and no ownership without property.
• The Supreme Court has said in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowment V. K. Lakshmindra, that there is no reason why the word ‘property’ as used in Article 19(1) (f) of the constitution should not be given a liberal and wide connotation and should not be extended to those well-recognised types of interests which have the insignia or characteristic of proprietary rights.
•  After the Indian Independence, when the Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950, the right to property was included as a ‘fundamental right’ under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 in Part III, making it an enforceable right.
  • ​Thereafter, Parliament passed the Constitution 44th Amendment which made the right to property an ordinary legal right under Article 300-A.

The correct answer is Agricultural Land Ceiling Act​.

• Agricultural Land Ceiling Act puts a limit on the landholdings by an individual.
  • By 1961-62, ceiling laws were passed in all the states and it became one of the most controversial land reforms in India.

​​

• The Goa, Daman & Diu Agricultural Tenancy Act, 1964 which is commonly known as Agricultural Tenancy Act was enacted in 1964 by the UT of Goa, Daman & Diu for-
  • The Act was intended to secure tenure of agricultural tenants, to limit the rent payable by the tenants to the owners
  • To provide for common obligation of the cultivating tenants and their joint responsibilities of maintaining protective bunds, sluice gates, ponds and fisheries, water resources, etc. 
• The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 which is commonly as known as Forest Rights Act is the most effective instrument of rural socio-economic distributive justice in the independent India.
• Provisions of Forest Rights Act-
  1. Recognizes the rights of forest-dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs.
  2. It ensures land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers.
  3. It strengthens the conservation regime of the forests by including the responsibilities and authority on Forest Rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and maintenance of ecological balance.
• Debt Relief Act also known as Karnataka Debt Relief Act, 2018 is an act to provide relief from indebtedness to small farmers, landless agricultural labourers and weaker sections of the people in the State of Karnataka.

The Correct Answer is ​a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts.

• In the Kesavanada Bharati Case (1973), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.
• The Preamble sets out the aims and aspirations of the people and these have been embodied in various provisions of the constitution.
• It certainly does not have a legal effect independently since it cannot be enforced in a court of law. Hence Option 4 is Correct.

The correct answer is The President is the head of the government.

• The President of India has all Executive Powers.
• The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• President of India is called the Nominal head because:
  • He is the figurehead, all the decisions are in his names but the real powers are with the Prime Minister.
  • He is bound to act on the advice of the council of ministers.
  • The power of the President is also not absolute. President can only declare a state of emergency only on the advice of the council of ministers.

The correct answer is multi-party.

• The multi-party system has evolved in India because many parties enable representing the social and geographical diversity of the country.
• In the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, 464  political parties were contested (6 national parties, 39 state parties, and 419 unrecognized parties), along with 8251 independent candidates.
  • 36 political parties are currently represented in Lok Sabha. 10 political parties have only one member and six parties are represented by two members in Lok Sabha.

• Examples of a multi-party system country: Armenia, Belgium, Germany, Iceland, France, India, Argentina, Indonesia, etc.
• The Soviet Union only had one party, namely the Communist Party of the Soviet Union.
• The United States, the Bahamas, Jamaica, Malta, and Zimbabwe, have a two-party system.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

• Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of our State Policy (DPSP).
• The provisions contained in this Part cannot be enforced by any court. Hence Statement 2 is Correct.
• The DPSP is fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
•  DPSPs are positive obligations on the state, though not enforceable in a court of law.
• The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Hence Statement 3 is Correct.

The correct answer is 12 Schedules.

•  Indian Constitution originally had eight schedules. Four more schedules were added by different amendments, now making a total tally of twelve.
• Schedules are basically tables that contain additional details not mentioned in the articles.