Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in .

The correct answer is the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation.

• NATO: North Atlantic Treaty Organization.
  • Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
  • This organization is an alliance of 30 independent member countries. 
  • It was established at the signing of the North Atlantic Treaty on 4 April 1949.

• The fundamental goal of this organization is to safeguard the Allies’ freedom and security by political and military means.
• It enables members to consult and cooperate on defense and security-related issues to solve problems, build trust and, in the long run, prevent conflict.
• Article 5 states that an attack against one Ally is an attack against all. This article was invoked when Bin Laden attacked the World Trade Centre in September 2001.
• Chairman of the NATO Military Committee: Air Chief Marshal Stuart Peach, Royal Air Force.
• Secretary-General: Jens Stoltenberg.

The Correct Answer is "Lok Sabha".

• A Finance Bill is a Money Bill as defined in Article 110 of the Constitution.
• The proposals of the government for levy of new taxes, modification of the existing tax structure, or continuance of the existing tax structure beyond the period approved by Parliament are submitted to Parliament through this bill.
• The Finance Bill is accompanied by a Memorandum containing explanations of the provisions included in it.
• The Finance Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
• The Rajya Sabha can recommend amendments to the Bill.
• The bill has to be passed by the Parliament within 75 days of its introduction.
• Rule 219 of the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha states: ‘Finance Bill’ means the Bill ordinarily introduced in each year to give effect to the financial proposals of the Government of India for the following financial year and includes a Bill to give effect to supplementary financial proposals for any period.
• There are different kinds of Finance Bills — the most important of them is the Money Bill.
• The Money Bill is concretely defined in Article 110.
• A Money Bill is certified by the Speaker.
• Financial Bills that carry the Speaker’s certification are Money Bills.

• The Lok Sabha, or House of the People, called the Lower House of India's bicameral Parliament, with the upper house being called the Rajya Sabha.
• Members of the Lok Sabha are elected via way of means of a grownup everyday suffrage and a first-past-the-put up the machine to symbolize their respective constituencies, and that they preserve their seats for 5 years or till the frame is dissolved via way of means of the President on the recommendation of the council of ministers.
• The residence meets withinside the Lok Sabha Chambers of the Sansad Bhavan, New Delhi.
• The most club of the House allocated via way of means of the Constitution of India is 552 (Initially, in 1950, it become 500).
• Currently, the residence has 543 seats that are made up via way of means of the election of as much as 543 elected participants and at most.
• Between 1952 and 2020, 2 extra participants of the Anglo-Indian network had been additionally nominated via way of means of the President of India on the recommendation of the Government of India, which become abolished in January 2020 via way of means of the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019.
• The Lok Sabha has a seating potential of 550.

United Nations Organisation (UNO):

• The United Nations is an international organization founded in 1945 after the Second World War by 51 countries.
• The countries were committed to maintaining international peace and security, developing friendly relations among nations, and promoting social progress, better living standards, and human rights.
• It was established with an aim of preventing future wars, succeeding the ineffective League of Nations.
• On 25 April 1945, 50 governments met in San Francisco for a conference and started drafting the UN Charter, which was adopted on 25 June 1945 and took effect on 24 October 1945, when the UN began operations. 
• The UN is headquartered on international territory in New York City and has other main offices in Geneva, Nairobi, Vienna, and The Hague.

Hence, United Nations Organisation was established on 24 October 1945.

The main purpose of establishment:

• To keep peace throughout the world;
• To develop friendly relations among nations;
• To help nations work together to improve the lives of poor people, to conquer hunger, disease, and illiteracy, and to encourage respect for each other’s rights and freedoms;
• To be a center for harmonizing the actions of nations to achieve these goals

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3.

• The governor is the chief executive head of the state. But, like the president, he is a nominal executive head (titular or constitutional head).
• He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
• The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor. These are:
  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. He should have completed the age of 35 years.
• Additionally, two conventions have also developed in this regard over the years.
  • First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
  • Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
  • However, both the conventions have been violated in some of the cases.
• Like the President, the governor is also entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned.
  • However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
• Before entering upon his office, the governor has to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In his oath, the governor swears:
  • to faithfully execute the office;
  • to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law;
  • to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of the state.
• The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
• A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
  • However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
  • Further, he can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.
  • The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President. Hence, statement 3 is NOT correct.

The correct answer is Chief Justice of High Court of the state.

The Chief Justice of the state or the union territory or High Court administers the oath to the governor as per Article 159.

• A governor is the executive of the state or union territory level of government.
• The governor administers the oath to the Chief Minister and other Ministers of the state.

Oath taken by the governor is–

"I, A. B., do solemnly affirm (or swear) that I will faithfully execute the office of Governor (or discharge the functions of the Governor) of (name of the State) and will to the best of my ability preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and well-being of the people of (name of the State).”

• Chief Minister’s oath is administered by the governor of that state.
• President of India’s oath is administered by the Chief Justice of India. The President administers the oath of the Prime Minister of the country and other Member of Parliament.
• State Lokayukta is appointed by the Chief Minister of the state after consultation with the Chief Judge of the High Court or the state.

• Article 159 of the Constitution is the same as Article 136 of the Draft Constitution 1948.  

1 and 3 Only are NOT correct.

• He is appointed by the Governor and enjoys the office during the pleasure of the Governor.
• Qualification to become an advocate general is the same as that of a Judge of a High Court.
• Post of Advocate General of Rajasthan is not Statutory Post, it's Constitutional Post.
• Hence statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

• Rajasthan State's Constitutional Bodies:
  •  State Public Service Commission: RPSC
  • Advocate General of Rajasthan (State) 

• Advocate General Of State:
  • Advocate General is the Highest Law Officer and is part of the state executive.
  • It is a Constitutional post and Article 165 in Constitution of India defines the procedure of appointment, removal and functions of Advocate General of State.
  • Appointment & Term:
    • He is appointed by the Governor and enjoys the office during the pleasure of the Governor.
  • The qualification to become an advocate general is the same as that of a Judge of a High Court.
    • Must be a citizen of India.
    • Must have held a judicial office for 10 years.
    • He has been an advocate in the High court for 10 years.
    • The remuneration of the Advocate General is decided by the Governor. 

Constitutionally, he/she should not be domiciled from the State to which the appointment may be made is NOT correct.

• Governor holds his office over the pleasure of president so, the governor can hold his office beyond 5 years. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Constitutionally, There is no provision for the domicile of the state, as the option shows a preference, so such things are rare to find in the constitution. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
• CM's advise is not binding on President. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Governor work in a state as the agent of the centre so advise can not be binding over the president. 
• Article 157: No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years. Hence option 4 is correct.

​

• There shall be a Governor for each state (Articles 153 of the Constitution of India).
• The executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor and shall be exercised by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution of India (Article 154).
• The Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal (Article 155).

• Gram Panchayat is the lowest level of governing institute of villages. Gram Panchayat is constituted of 5 members- the Sarpanch, the Upsarpanch, and Three Panch. 
• The Secretary of the Gram Panchayat is a non elected representative selected by the State Government.
• He is responsible for conducting the meetings and also keeps a record of the proceedings.
• The Secretary ensures that the meetings are conducted smoothly without any disputes. He also ensures that all members attend the meetings and presents the  Action Taken Report on resolutions of previous Gram Sabha meetings. 

The Secretary overviews all the Panchayat Activities. Hence, the correct answer is the Government. 

• Ordinary people take part in elections and voting. The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by people, but the Secretary is nominated by the State Government. 
• The Election Commissioner through the election commission ensures a level playing field for all the parties in the election fray and observes a Moral Code of Conduct of all political parties.
• The Landlord of the village can take part in the election as a Nominee or by voting.

The correct answer is 3.

• The number of districts in Saran division is 3, which are- Saran, Siwan and Gopalganj.
• The headquarters of Saran division is located in Chhapra.
• It is noteworthy that at present there are 9 divisions and 38 districts.
• The names of the nine divisions are- Patna, Magadha, Munger, Tirhut, Saran, Kosi, Darbhanga, Purnia and Bhagalpur.

The correct answer is Haryana.

• The 7 Star Village Scheme has been run by the Haryana Government for improving the condition of the villages present in Haryana.

• 7-Star Gram Panchayat Rainbow scheme to give star rankings to its panchayats on the basis of seven social parameters Under this scheme as many as 1,120 villages of the state have achieved rankings since its launch in January 2018.
• Through this scheme, the state government will provide assistance to the gram panchayat so that its functioning can be improved.
• Along with this, Gram Panchayat will also be honoured as an incentive for the work done by them.

The correct answer is ​2, 3, and 4 only.

• The Constitution of India provides for a parliamentary form of government, both at the Centre and in the states.
  • Articles 74 and 75 deal with the parliamentary system at the Centre.
  • Articles 163 and 164 in the states.
• Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of the nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government.

• The features of parliamentary government in India:
  • Nominal and Real Executives - 
    • The President is the nominal executive (de jure executive or titular executive) while the Prime Minister is the real executive (de facto executive).
    • Thus, the President is head of the State, while the Prime Minister is head of the government. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  • Majority Party Rule - 
    • The political party which secures majority seats in the Lok Sabha forms the government.
  • Collective Responsibility - (Asked in UPSC prelims)
    • This is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government.
    • The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75).
    • They act as a team, and swim and sink together.
    • The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., the council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
  • Political Homogeneity 
    • Usually, members of the council of ministers belong to the same political party, and hence they share the same political ideology.
    • In the case of a coalition government, the ministers are bound by consensus.
  • Double Membership 
    • The ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
    • This means that a person cannot be a minister without being a member of Parliament.
    • The Constitution stipulates that a minister who is not a member of the Parliament for a period of six consecutive months ceases to be a minister.
  • The Leadership of the Prime Minister
    • The Prime Minister plays a leadership role in this system of government.
    • S/He is the leader of the council of ministers, the leader of the Parliament, and the leader of the party in power.
  • Dissolution of the Lower House 
    • The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.
    • In other words, the prime minister can advise the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections.
    • This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a parliamentary system.
  • Secrecy 
    • The ministers operate on the principle of secrecy of procedure and cannot divulge information about their proceedings, policies, and decisions.
    • They take the oath of secrecy before entering their office.
    • The oath of secrecy to the ministers is administered by the President.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

• The United Nations (UNCTAD) has declared Invest India as a winner of the 2020 United Nations Investment Promotion Award. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The award ceremony took place on 7th December 2020 from UNCTAD Headquarters in Geneva.
• The Award recognizes and celebrates the outstanding achievements of the World’s best-practice investment promotion agencies.
• The evaluation was based on UNCTAD’s assessment of work undertaken by 180 national Investment Promotion Agencies across the world.

• “Invest India” is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India and act as the first point of reference for investors in India.
• It is a non-profit venture set up in 2009 under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 2 only.

Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970

• The act defines a worker as a workman who shall be deemed to be employed as contract labour in or in connection with the work of an establishment where he is hired in or in connection with such work by or through a contractor or without the knowledge of the employer. 
• The main objectives of the act are
  • to prohibit the employment of contract labour. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  • to regulate the working conditions of the Contract Labour where ever such employment is not prohibited. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It regulates the employment of contract labour in certain establishments.
• It applies to every establishment where there are 20 or more workmen employed on any day of the preceding 12 months as contract labour. 
  • The Government may by notification in the Official Gazette make provisions of the applicable to establishments or contractor employing less than 20 workmen. 
• It prohibits the employment of contract labour jobs that are perennial in nature and where permanent employees need to be employed.
• A contractor needs to obtain a licence issued by a licensing officer in order to work through contract labour as mentioned under section 7 of the act.

• It is not applicable to the establishment in which the work is only of an intermittent or casual nature. 

The correct answer is Members of Parliament.

• According to Article 75,
  • The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • The Minister shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  • The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
• The speaker nominates a candidate, who is then elected to the prime minister by the members of parliament.
• Prime Minister is the real executive authority that is the de facto executive.
• President is the nominal executive authority that is the de jure executive.
• The Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament.
• The salary and allowances of the Prime Minister are determined by the parliament from time to time.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• Articles 214 to 231 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organisation, independence, jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the high courts.
• The judiciary in a state consists of a high court and a hierarchy of subordinate courts. The high court occupies the top position in the judicial administration of a state.

History

• The institution of high court originated in India in 1862 when the high courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
• In 1866, a fourth high court was established at Allahabad. In the course of time, each province in British India came to have its own high court.
• After 1950, a high court existing in a province became the high court for the corresponding state.

• The Constitution of India provides for a high court for each state, but the Seventh Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more States or for two or more states and a union territory. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The territorial jurisdiction of a high court is co-terminus with the territory of a state.
• Similarly, the territorial jurisdiction of a common high court is co-terminus with the territories of the concerned states and union territory.
• Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).
• The other union territories fall under the jurisdiction of different state high courts.
• The Parliament can extend the jurisdiction of a high court to any union territory or exclude the jurisdiction of a high court from any union territory. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The correct answer is 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016.

• 101st Constitution Amendment Act, 2016  introduced the Goods and Services Tax.

• GST Bill was first introduced in 2014 as The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Bill.
• Goods and Services Tax is a widespread indirect tax on the manufacture, sale, and consumption of goods and services throughout India.
• GST replaced respective taxes levied by the central and state governments.
• It is an indirect tax for the whole country on the lines of “One Nation One Tax” to make India a combined market.
• GST Council will decide upon any matter related to GST whose chairman is the finance minister of India.
• GST has provisions of:
  • Central GST to cover Excise duty, Service tax.
  • State GST to cover VAT, luxury tax and Integrated GST to cover inter-state trade.
  • IGST is not a tax but a system to coordinate state and union taxes.
  • Article 246A states that States have the power to tax goods and services.

• The Ninety-second Amendment of the Constitution of India is known as The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act, 2003.
  • It amended the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution.
  • It includes Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santali languages and increases the total number of languages listed in the schedule to 22.
• The Constitutional (103rd Amendment) Act got the assent of the President of India on 13th January 2018.
  • It provides reservation of jobs in central government jobs as well as government educational institutions.
  • It applies to citizens belonging to the economically weaker sections from the upper castes.
  • This reservation is "in addition to the existing reservations and subject to a maximum of ten percent of the total seats in each category".
• The Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act of 1992 came into force in India to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

The Correct Answer is Population control and family planning.

• This provision for Population control and family planning was added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, 1976.
• It was added under the Entry 20-A in List III (Concurrent List) of the VII Schedule of the constitution.

• The Constitution of India has provided for a division of powers between the Central and state governments.
• Under the Seventh Schedule, there are three lists – the Union, State, and Concurrent List.

Union List 

• The Union List has a range of subjects under which the Parliament may make laws.
• This includes defense, foreign affairs, railways, banking, among others.

State List

• The State List lists subjects under which the legislature of a State may make laws.
• Public order, police, public health, and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries, betting, and gambling are some of the subjects that come under the state.

Concurrent List

• The Concurrent List includes subjects that give powers to both the Centre and State governments.
• Subjects like education including technical education, medical education and universities, population control and family planning, criminal law, prevention of cruelty to animals, protection of wildlife and animals, forests, etc.

The correct answer is Six months.

• The election to constitute a Panchayat should be completed before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.
• Article 243E:
  • Every Panchayat, unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date appointed for its first meeting and no longer.
  • No amendment of any law for the time being in force shall have the effect of causing dissolution of a Panchayat at any level, which is functioning immediately before such amendment, till the expiration of its duration specified in clause (1).
  • An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed-
    • before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1).
    • before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution.

• By article 243-K and by the 73rd Constitutional amendment act an independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections. Hence statement A is Incorrect.
• As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, 1/3rd of the Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and 1/3rd offices of the Chairpersons at all the levels of Panchayati Raj Institutions that are covered under Part IX of the constitution are reserved for women. Hence statement B is Correct.
• A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.
• The amendment mandated to hold regular elections to local government bodies. Hence statement C is Correct.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Public Accounts Committee:

• Public Accounts Committee was founded in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Currently, it has 22 members, out of which 15 are from Lok Sabha and the other 7 members are from Rajya Sabha.
• The Chairman of the committee until 1966-67 belonged to the ruling party. However, a convention has developed since 1967 whereby the Chairman of the committee is elected from the opposition. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The tenure of its chairman and members is one year. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

• The Committee on Public Accounts is the oldest Parliamentary Committee.
• The Speaker is empowered to appoint the Chairman of the Committee from amongst its Members.
• The Committee on Public Accounts scrutinizes the Appropriation Accounts of the Government of India and the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India thereon. While doing so,  it is the duty of the Committee to satisfy itself-
  • that the money shown in the accounts as having been disbursed were legally available for, and applicable to, the service or purpose to which have been applied or charged.
  • that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it.
  • that every re-appropriation has been made in accordance with the provisions made on this behalf under rules framed by the competent authority.

The correct answer is President.

• The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by President.
  • The Chief Election Commissioner heads the Election Commission of India.
  • A body constitutionally empowered to conduct free and fair elections to the national and state legislatures and of President and Vice-President.
  • Sushil Chandra Chief Election Commissioner of India and Chairman.
  • A-WEB addressing participants of the International Virtual Election Visitors Programme 2020 for Bihar Legislative Assembly Elections.
  • Chief Election Commissioner Sh. Sunil Arora released a book titled 'Electoral Reforms in India' on January 15, 2021, authored by Dr. Komal Jain.
• Ram Nath kovind is the current president of India.
• Hence, the correct option is 4.

• Chief Minister :
  • A chief minister heads a state government's council of ministers and can be deputed in that role by a deputy chief minister.
  • In the Republic of India, a chief minister is the elected head of government of each state out of 28 states and sometimes a union territory. 
  • The governor appoints and swears in the chief minister, whose council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the assembly.
  • The chief minister is elected through a majority in the state legislative assembly.
  • This is procedurally established by the vote of confidence in the legislative assembly, as suggested by the governor of the state who is the appointing authority.
• Prime Minister :
  • Narendra Damodardas Modi is an Indian politician serving as the 14th and current Prime Minister of India since 2014.
  • He was the Chief Minister of Gujarat from 2001 to 2014 and is the Member of Parliament for Varanasi.
  • The Prime minister can be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament of India :
    • the Lok Sabha 
    • the Rajya Sabha 
  • The prime minister selects and can dismiss members of the cabinet; allocates posts to members within the government.
  • The prime minister is the senior-most member of the cabinet in the executive of government in a parliamentary system.
• Vice President :
  • Venkaiah Naidu is the current Vice President of India.
  • He defeated UPA's candidate Gopalkrishna Gandhi in the 5 August 2017 election.
  • The Vice President of India is the second-highest constitutional office in India after the President.
  • The Vice President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament.
  • The Vice President acts as President in the absence of the president due to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
  • The Vice President of India is Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is Arvind Kumar Shukla.

• Mr. Arvind Kumar Shukla was appointed a Chief Information Commissioner of Madhya Pradesh.

• He was appointed as Chief Information Commissioner of Madhya Pradesh on 29^th March 2019.
• Information Commission was established under Section 15 of the State Information Rights Act 2005 on 22^nd August 2005.

• The First Chief Information Commissioner of Madhya Pradesh was Mr. P. V. Dixit.
• Mr. Sanjay Yadav
  • He was appointed as Working Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court on 30^th September 2020.
  • He was appointed in place of former Chief Justice of Madhya Pradesh High Court Mr. Ajay Kumar Mittal.
• Mr. K.G. Suresh
  • He was appointed as Vice-Chancellor of Makhanlal Chaturvedi National University of Journalism and Communication, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh.
  • He worked as Director of the Indian Institute of Mass Communication, New Delhi.
• Iqbal Singh Bais
  • He was appointed as Chief Secretary of Madhya Pradesh on 24^th March 2020.
  • He was appointed in place of Mr. M. Gopal Reddy who worked from 16^th March 2020 to 24^th March 2020.

• Justice Mohammad Rafiq is the new Chief Justice of MP high court. (as of Jan-2021) 

• In 1687, the first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras.
• The Chennai Municipal Corporation (officially the Corporation of Chennai), formerly known as the Corporation of Madras, is the civic body that governs the city of Chennai (formerly Madras), India.
• Inaugurated on September 29, 1688, under a Royal Charter issued by King James II on December 30, 1687, as the Corporation of Madras, it is the oldest municipal body of the Commonwealth of Nations outside Great Britain.
• It is headed by a mayor, who presides over 200 councillors, each of whom represents one of the 200 wards of the city.
• It is also the second oldest corporation in the world.

The correct answer is Gwalior.

• The Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Training and Security Training Institute are in the Gwalior district.
• The ancient name of the Gwalior district was Gopanchal. This district is known as the revenue headquarters of Madhya Pradesh state.
• In Gwalior, the tomb of Rani Laxmi Bai located here. Asia's first Physical Training college (LNIPE) is situated in Gwalior.

The correct answer is Jabalpur.

• The state's first Municipal corporation was opened in the Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh.
• In Jabalpur, many tourist spots are there like Bhedaghat, Dhuandhare Waterfall, White Marble Rocks, Madan Mahal, Hanumantal Bada Jain Mandir, etc.
• Vinayak Narhari Bhave has been called the city as Sankaar Dhanni or Cultural Capital of Madhya Pradesh. The Madhya Pradesh High court is situated here. One of the Country's India Ordnance Factory is here.
• The Snooker game is originated here. The city was mainly influenced by the Marathas and Mughal reigns of rulers.

• Nagar Nigam is an Urban Local Body.
• The 74th amendment made the provisions relating to urban local governments (Nagar Palika).
• The members of the Nagar Palika are elected representatives for a term of five years.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

The constitution can be amended by:

• By a simple majority.
•  Article 368 of Part XX of the Indian Constitution provides for two types of amendments,

1. By a special majority of Parliament.
2. By a special majority of the Parliament with the ratification by half of the total states.

By Simple Majority of Parliament

• Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states.
• Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
• Second Schedule - emoluments,
• Allowances, privileges, and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
• Quorum in Parliament.
• Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
• Rules of procedure in Parliament.
• Privileges of the Parliament, its members, and its committees.
• Use of the English language in Parliament.
• A number of judges in the Supreme Court.
• Citizenship acquisition and termination.
• Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
• Delimitation of constituencies.
• Union territories
• Fifth Schedule-administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule-administration of tribal areas.

Special Majority

• Fundamental Rights.
• Directive Principles of State Policy.
• All other provisions are not covered by the first and third categories.

Special Majority and Ratification by half of the States:

• Election of the President and its manner.
• The extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
• Supreme Court and high courts.
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
• Representation of states in Parliament.
• Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article 368 itself).

The correct answer is 1956.

• Bhopal became the capital of Madhya Pradesh in 1956.
• The name Bhopal is popularly derived from 'Bhojpal' or Bhoj’s dam.
• Bhoj dam is a great dam that now holds up the Bhopal city lakes.
• Bhopal city was founded by the Parmar King Bhoj in the 11th century.
• The present city of Bhopal was founded by Afghan soldier Dost Mohammed Khan.

• Bhopal is one of the 52 districts of the Madhya Pradesh State.
• On 30^th April 1949, Nawab Hamidullah Khan signed an agreement with the Government of India.
• On 1^st June 1949, the state was taken over by the Union Government as Chief Commissioner's Province.
• On 1^st  November 1956, a new state of Madhya Pradesh came into existence and Bhopal became its capital.
• The Bhopal district was carved on 2^nd October 1972.
• National Judicial Academy is located in Bhopal.
• Indian Institute of Forest Management is located in Bhopal.

The correct answer is Right against discrimination under article 15.

The following fundamental rights are only available to the citizens of India, and not to aliens (i.e. foreign citizens):

• Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 19: Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble peaceably and...
• Article 29: Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities.
• Article 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

• Aliens are foreign citizens. These are classified into two: friendly aliens (Cordial relations with India) and enemy aliens (State at war with India). Enemy aliens don't enjoy protection against arrest and detention under article 22. 

If the State government dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five-year term, fresh elections must be held within four months of such dissolution.

The Correct Answer is If the State government dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five-year term, fresh elections must be held within four months of such dissolution.

• 73rd Amendment Act  It is about rural local governments (which are also known as Panchayati Raj Institutions or PRIs). It is aimed at strengthening local governments and ensuring an element of uniformity in their structure and functioning across the country. 
• It has given practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution. It gives constitutional status to the Panchayati raj institutions  It has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to243 O. 
• It has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution.  It has laid down 29 functions to be entrusted to the PRIs.
• Elections of Panchayats:  Article 243K enshrines the provisions with respect to elections of the Panchayats. This article provides for the constitution of a State Election Commission in respect of the Panchayats.
• This State Election Commission would have the power to supervise, direct, and control the elections to the Panchayats and also prepare the electoral rolls.
• Members at all three levels of PRIs are elected directly by the people.
• The term of each Panchayat body is five years.
• If the State government dissolves the Panchayat before the end of its five-year term, fresh elections must be held within six months of such dissolution. This is an important provision that ensures the existence of elected local bodies.

The correct answer is Sanjeeva Reddy.

• Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy was elected as an unopposed candidate with the backing of the then Janata Party as the sixth President of India.
• He worked as the President of India from 25 July 1977 to 25 July 1982.
• As President, Reddy worked with Prime Ministers Morarji Desai, Charan Singh, and Indira Gandhi.
• Reddy authored a book, Without Fear or Favour: Reminiscences and Reflections of a President, published in 1989.

The correct answer is the Supreme court of India.

• According to Article 71, the Supreme Court will investigate and settle all doubts and disputes arising out of the election of the President or Vice President, and its decision will be final.

• If there is any dispute, an election petition is filed with the Supreme Court of India which is the only authority to try an election petition regarding the President’s election.
• A petition regarding the dispute in the election can be filed by any of the presidential candidates.
• A petition can be filed by any 20 or more electors as joint petitioners.

• The Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial court under the Constitution of India.
• Article No 124 provides for the establishment and constitution of the Supreme Court.
• It is Established as the Supreme court of India on 28th January 1950 and its Headquarters in New Delhi.
• Also known as the 'guardian of our Constitution"
• The chief justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court of India.
• The 48th chief justice of India is Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana. 
• After the appointment of the new four justices on 18 September 2019, the strength of the Supreme court increases from 30 to 34.
• Newly appointed judges Krishna Murari, SR Bhat, V Ramasubramanian, and Hrishikesh Roy.
• The Parliament of India has the power to increase or decrease the number of judges in the Supreme court.

The Correct Answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

• The welfare state is a concept of government in which the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens.
• The government ensures the availability of a social security net which may include education, housing, sustenance, healthcare, etc.
•  The Indian Constitution declares the concept of the welfare state in the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).

DPSP

• Part IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of our State Policy (DPSP).
• DPSP constitutes a comprehensive socio-economic program for a modern democratic state.
• The idea of Directive Principles of State Policy has been taken from the Irish Republic.

Fundamental Rights

• Part III of the Indian Constitution talks about Fundamental Rights.
• There are seven categories of Fundamental Rights (FR) which are covered from Articles 12-35.
• Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are guaranteed to all citizens.
• They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender, etc. Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.

Preamble

• Preamble enshrines the ideals and philosophy of the constitution.
• The preamble gives an idea about the following : (1) the source of the constitution, (2) the nature of the Indian state (3) a statement of its objectives, and (4) the date of its adoption.

Seventh Schedule

• The seventh schedule under Article 246 of the constitution deals with the division of powers between the union and the states.
• It contains three lists Union List, State List and Concurrent List.

The correct answer is the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

• Forest Rights Act, 2006
  • The Forest Rights Act, India or the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act is also known by other names like the Tribal Rights Act or the Tribal Land Act.
  • It deals with the rights of the communities that dwell in the forests (including Scheduled Tribes), over land and other resources, which have been denied to them over the years because of the continuation of forest laws from the colonial era in the country.
  • The act was passed in December 2006. It deals with the rights of forest-dwelling communities over land and other resources. The Act grants legal recognition to the rights of traditional forest-dwelling communities, partially correcting the injustice caused by the forest laws.
  • The Ministry of the Central Government dealing with Tribal Affairs or any officer or authority authorized by the Central Government on this behalf shall be the nodal agency for the implementation of the provisions of this Act. So, at the national level, the Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal agency to implement the FRA. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The Act recognizes and vests the forest rights and occupation in forest land in Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) who have been residing in such forests for generations.
  • Forest rights can also be claimed by any member or community who has for at least three generations (75 years) before the 13th day of December 2005 primarily resided in forest land for bona fide livelihood needs.
  • It strengthens the conservation regime of the forests while ensuring the livelihood and food security of the FDST and OTFD.
  • The Gram Sabha is the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of Individual Forest Rights (IFR) or Community Forest Rights (CFR) or both that may be given to FDST and OTFD.

The correct answer is chosen.

• According to Article-178 of the Constitution, the speaker of the legislative assembly is chosen.

​

• Election of Speaker:
  • Under Article 178 of the Indian Constitution, every Legislative Assembly of a State shall choose one of its Members as Speaker. 
  • In the Lok Sabha, the Lower House of the Indian Parliament, or in case of state legislative assembly both Presiding Officers - the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are elected from among its members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House.
  • Qualifications:
    • No specific qualifications are prescribed for being elected the Speaker.
    • The Constitution only requires that the Speaker should be a member of the House.
    • But an understanding of the Constitution and the laws of the country and the rules of procedure and conventions of Parliament is considered a major asset for the holder of the Office of the Speaker.
    • Usually, a member belonging to the ruling party is elected the Speaker.
    • A healthy convention, however, has evolved over the years whereby the ruling party nominates its candidate after informal consultations with the Leaders of other Parties and Groups in the House.
    • This convention ensures that once elected, the Speaker enjoys the respect of all sections of the House. 

• Articles from 178 to 187 deals with the officers of the state legislature. They include Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Chairman of LC, Deputy Chairman of LC etc.
  • Article 178: The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
  • Article 179: Vacation and resignation of, and removal from, the offices of Speaker and Deputy Speaker.
  • Article 180: Power of the Deputy Speaker or other person to perform the duties of the office of, or to act as, Speaker.
  • Article 181: The Speaker or the Deputy Speaker not to preside while a resolution for his removal from office is under consideration.

The correct answer is ​Santhanam Committee.

• Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of Santhanam Committee.

​

• Central Vigilance Commission
  • The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
  • CVC is conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
  • Consequent upon promulgation of an Ordinance by the President, the Central Vigilance Commission has been made a multi-member Commission with "statutory status" with effect from 25th August 1998.

• The present status of the Central Vigilance Commission
  • The CVC Bill was passed by both the Houses of Parliament in 2003 and the President gave its assent on September 11, 2003.
  • Thus the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003 (No. 45 0f 2003) came into effect from that date.
  • The Commission shall consist of:
    • A Central Vigilance Commissioner - Chairperson;
    • Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners - Members.
• A.D. Gorwala
  • A.D. Gorwala Committee Report on Public Administration (1951) on ethics and integrity.
• Kriplani Committee
  • Kripalani was elected to the Constituent Assembly from United Province.
  • He was the Chairman of the Sub-Committee on Fundamental Rights.
• Administrative Reforms Commission of India
  • ​The ARC or the Administrative Reforms Commission is a committee set up by the Government of India.
  • It reviews the public administration system and gives recommendations to improve it.
  • The reports by the Commission are called the ARC reports. The first ARC (1966) was headed by Morarji Desai.

The correct answer is (A), (B) and (C).

• Financial Committees of Indian Parliament are;​
  • Estimates Committee
  • Public Account Committee
  • Committee on Public Undertakings

•  Financial Committees of Indian Parliament ​
  • Estimates Committee
    • ​The Estimates Committee is a committee of selected members of parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India.
    • The main intent of the committee is to scrutinise the functioning of government ministries and departments in terms of expenditure and utilisation of funds.
    • The functions of the committee as enshrined in Rule 310 of Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
  • Public Account Committee
    • ​The Public Accounts Committee is a committee of selected members of parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, for the purpose of auditing the revenue and the expenditure of the Government of India.
    • The PAC has a key role to play in ensuring accountability and transparency in the way Government agencies allocate, spend and manage their finances.
  • Committee on Public Undertakings
    • ​The Committee on Public Undertakings is a committee of selected members of parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India.
    • The main intent of the committee is to examine the reports and accounts of the public sector undertakings as specified in the fourth schedule of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

• Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowance for Members of Parliament
  • The Joint Committee was constituted to frame rules under the Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament Act, 1954. It consists of 10 members from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha.
  • The members of the Joint Committee elect its Chairman.

The correct answer is Judge of the Supreme Court.

• The Comptroller and Auditor - General of India can be removed from his office in like manner as Judge of the Supreme Court.

• Removal of the Comptroller and Auditor - General of India 
  • Comptroller and Auditor General of India is the apex authority responsible for external and internal audits of the expenses of the National and state governments.
  • It is popularly known as the CAG of India. 
  • ​CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution that is the manner the same as the removal of a Supreme Court Judge.
  • He is ineligible to hold any office, either under the Government of India or of any state, once he retires/ resigns as a CAG.

• Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  • Article 148: of the Constitution of India establishes the authority of this office. 
  • Article 149: Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
  • Article 150: Form of Accounts of the Union of India and the States.
  • Article 151: To report to the President or to the Governors of the States on the accounts of the Union or State. 
• Shri Girish Chandra Murmu assumed office as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on 8th August 2020.
• Prior to this, Shri Murmu was the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. 

The correct answer is President.

• The Union Audit Reports prepared by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India show the findings of the transaction audit and performance audit in the areas of Civil Audit, Audit of Autonomous Bodies, Defence Services, Railways, Receipts of the Government and Central Commercial.

• Shri Girish Chandra Murmu assumed office as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on 8th August 2020.
  • Prior to this, Shri Murmu was the first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
  • There are several provisions in the Constitution for safeguarding the independence of CAG.
  • CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and provided with tenure of 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.
  • CAG shall be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

Indian Parliament consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President of India.

• Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the parliament and is termed as the House of Elders in the Indian Parliament. 
• Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and also called a ‘continuing chamber.’ Unlike Lok Sabha which usually runs for 6 years and the fresh elections are taken up, Rajya Sabha has no specific tenure and keeps on running. Therefore, it is never dissolved.
• Every second year, one-third of its members retire.
  • For the vacant seats, fresh elections take place.
  • However, nominations are taken up at the beginning of the third year.
• Qualification of Rajya Sabha members:
  • Must be an Indian Citizen
  • Must be not less than 30 years of age
  • Must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency.

Thus, we can say that all the statements are true about Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is ​both Houses of Parliament assembled together.

• The President of India addresses both houses of Parliament under Article 87 of the Indian Constitution.

• Constitutional Provision ​Article 87:
  • ​Article 87 of the constitution provides two instances when the President specially addresses both Houses of Parliament. 
    • The President of India addresses both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha at the beginning of the first session after each general election when the reconstituted lower house meets for the first time.
    • The President also addresses both the houses at the beginning of the first session of each year.

• Speech of President under Article 87 
  • The President’s speech highlights the government’s policy priorities and plans for the upcoming year.
  • The address provides a broad framework of the government’s agenda and direction.
• Amendment in Article 87 
  • Article 87 was amended the first time in 1951.
  • In clause (1), for the words "every session", the words "the first session after each general election to the House of the People and at the commencement of the first session of each year" is substituted.
  • In clause (2), the words "and for the precedence of such discussion over other business of the House" is omitted.

The Correct Answer is "Parliament".

• Draft Article 86 (Article 106, Constitution of India, 1950) was discussed on 20 May 1949.
• It enabled the Parliament to regulate salaries and allowances of the members of the Parliament.
• Salaries and allowances of members Members of either House of Parliament shall be entitled to receive such salaries and allowances, as may from time to time be determined by Parliament by law and, until provision in that respect, is so made, allowances at such rates and upon such conditions as were immediately before the commencement of this Constitution applicable in the case of members of the Constituent Assembly of the Dominion of India Legislative Procedure.

• There are 104 amendments that have been made in the Indian constitution up to January 25, 2020.
• The very first amendment in the Indian Constitution was made in 1950.
• The world's lengthiest written constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules at the time of commencement.
• Now the Constitution of India has 448 articles in 25 parts and 12 schedules.
• There are 104 amendments (which took place on 25th January 2020 to extend the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states assemblies) that have been made in the Indian constitution so far.
• The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, Mr. Thaawar Chand Gehlot on January 8, 2019.
• The Bill seeks to provide for the advancement of “economically weaker sections” of citizens. 

The correct answer is 1 and 2.

Functions of Public Service Commissions.

• It shall be the duty of the Union and the State Public Service Commissions to conduct examinations for appointments to the services of the Union and the services of the State respectively.
• It shall also be the duty of the Union Public Service Commission if requested by any two or more States so to do, to assist those States in framing and operating schemes of joint recruitment for any services for which candidates possessing special qualifications are required. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Union Public Service Commission or the State Public Service Commission, as the case may be, shall be consulted—
  • on all matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts; Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • on the principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services and posts and in making promotions and transfers from one service to another and on the suitability of candidates for such appointments, promotions or transfers;
  • on all disciplinary matters affecting a person serving under the GOI or the GOS in a civil capacity, including memorials or petitions relating to such matters;
  • on any claim by or in respect of a person who is serving under the Government of an Indian State, in a civil capacity, that any costs incurred by him in defending legal proceedings instituted against him in respect of acts done or purporting to be done in the execution of his duty should be paid out of the Consolidated Fund of India, or, as the case may be, out of the Consolidated Fund of the State; on any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries sustained by a person while serving under the GOI or GOS in a civil capacity, and any question as to the amount of any such award,
  • it shall be the duty of a Public Service Commission to advise on any matter so referred to them and on any other matter which the President, or, as the case may be, the Governor of the State, may refer to them;
  • The President as respects the all-India services and also as respects other services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union, and the Governor, as respects other services and posts in connection with the affairs of a State, may make regulations specifying the matters in any particular class of case or any particular circumstances, it shall not be necessary for a Public Service Commission to be consulted.
  • Nothing in clause (3) shall require a Public Service Commission to be consulted as respects how any provision referred to in clause (4) of article 16 in which effect may be given to the provisions of article 335. Hence, the Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • All regulations made under the proviso to clause (3) by the President or the Governor of a State shall be laid for not less than fourteen days before each House of Parliament or the House or each House of the Legislature of the State, as soon as possible after they are made, and shall be subject to such modifications, whether by way of repeal or amendment, as both Houses of Parliament or the House or both Houses of the Legislature of the State may make.

The correct answer is the German Weimar Constitution.

In Part XVIII of the Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360, the Emergency provisions are there

• Such provisions help and enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
• The reason behind the incorporation of these provisions in the Constitution is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity,  security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution.
• The Central government becomes all-powerful and the states go into total control of the Centre and it converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal amendment of the Constitution, during an Emergency
•  A unique feature of the Indian Constitution is the kind of transformation of the political system from federal during normal times to unitary during Emergencies.
• The Indian Institution stipulates 3 types of emergencies- National, state, and financial emergency. 
• The feature of suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency. is taken from the Weimar Constitution of Germany. 

The correct answer is 19.

• Article 19 related to Right to freedom.
• The Right to freedom of speech and expression is a Fundamental Right under Article-19 of the Constitution of India.
• There are six rights regarding freedom of:
  • Speech and expression
  • Assembly
  • Association
  • Movement
  • Residence
  • Profession

• Article 11 - The Judicial power of the United States shall not be construed to extend to any suit in law or equity, commenced or prosecuted against one of the United States by Citizens of another State, or by Citizens or Subjects of any Foreign State.
• Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
• Article 15 deals with discrimination on the basis of caste, sex, or place of birth. It means that the state should not discriminate against any citizen on these grounds.

The correct answer is BJP.

• The political party that won the majority of seats in the 2017 Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly Elections is BJP.

• The 2017 Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly Elections were the 4th Vidhan Sabha election of the state.
• It was conducted in a single phase for the 69 seats of the Uttarakhand Legislative Assembly.
• Trivendra Singh Rawat was the leader and the Chief Minister of the state back then.

• The BJP was earlier known as the Bharatiya Jana Sangh which was formed in 1951 by Syama Prasad Mukherjee. 
• After the Emergency of 1977, the Jana Sangh merged with several other parties to form the Janata Party.

The correct answer is defection.

• Changing party allegiance from the party with which a person got elected to a different party is called defection.

​

• Anti-Defection Law
  • The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the Members of Parliament and the State Legislatures on the ground of defection from one Political Party to another.
  • Disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of a split.
  • A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House,
    • If he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party; or
    • If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
  • An Independent member of a House becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election.
  • A Nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any Political Party after the expiry of six months from the date, on which he takes his seat in the House.
  • Member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be disqualified for defying a whip only.

• Whip:
  • A directive issued by any political party to ensure the support of its members voting in favour or against a particular issue on the floor of the House.

The correct answer is Fraternity.

• Fraternity means behaving as if we are members of the same family.

• The Preamble of the constitution:
  • The idea of the Preamble is derived from the Constitution of the USA.
  • The ideals embodied in the Objectives Resolution are reflected in the Preamble to the Constitution, which, as amended in 1976, summaries the aims and objects of the Constitution.
  • N.A. Palkivala, an eminent jurist and constitutional expert, called the Preamble as the Identity.
  • The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
  • The Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
  • The Preamble has been amended only once so far, in 1976, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, which added three new words Socialist, Secular and Integrity. This amendment was held to be valid.
  • In case of doubt, the Supreme Court has referred to the Preamble to elucidate vague aspects of the Constitution.
  • In the Berubari case, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble was not part of the Constitution, but later, in the Keshavananda Bharti case, it declared that it was part of the Constitution.

The right to freedom guarantees freedom for citizens to live a life of dignity among other things. These are given in Articles 19, 20, 21A and 22 of the Indian Constitution.

Article 22 deals with the protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. 

• This article is applicable to both citizens and non-citizens.
• This provision extends certain procedural safeguards for individuals in case of an arrest.
• It comes into the picture after a person has been arrested. It is not a fundamental right against detention and arrest.
• The idea behind this right is to prevent arbitrary arrests and detention.
• The article provides the following safeguards:
  • Article 22(1) – Any person who is in custody has to be informed as to why he has been arrested. Further, he cannot be denied the right to consult an advocate.
  • Article 22(2) – The arrested individual should be produced before a judicial magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest.
  • Article 22(3) – No individual who has been arrested can be kept in custody for more than the period determined by the judicial magistrate.
• These safeguards are, however, not applicable to 
  • Enemy aliens
  • People arrested under preventive detention law

Hence, it is clear that Article 22 of the Constitution ensures the Right not to be ill-treated during arrest or while in custody.

• There are two types of detention: 
  • Punitive
  • Preventive
• Punitive detention is detention after a trial.
• Preventive detention is detention without trial.
• The idea behind this is to prevent an individual from committing a crime. This means that persons can be detained on grounds of suspicion.
• The rights of people arrested in this manner are governed by preventive detention laws.

Article 22 of the Indian constitution

Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)

As per Article 22 —

• No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.
• Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate.

Our Constitution guarantees certain rights to the arrested person. The first part of Article 22 provides specific rights to persons under punitive detention. Punitive detention is the detention of a person after trial and conviction to punish him for an offence committed by him. These rights are,

• The right to be informed of the grounds of arrest,
• The right to consult a lawyer of one’s own choice,
• To be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest (excluding the holidays and time taken during the journey).
• Further, the period of detention cannot be beyond what is authorized by the magistrate.

It may be noted that aforesaid safeguards are not available to:

• Alien enemies; and
• Persons arrested or detained under preventive detention law.

Preventive Detention – The second part of the Article deals with preventive detention. In preventive detention, persons are arrested to prevent them from committing a serious crime. Preventive detention is the detention of a person without trial for a limited period when the State suspects that a person is likely to commit a crime or is a threat to the security of the State. Such detention too is subject to some safeguards present in Article 22. 

The correct answer is ​2002.

• The 86th amendment was made in the constitution in the year 2002.

• This added a new Article called 21A after article 21 that made education for all children of the age of 6 to 14 years a fundamental right.
• It states that “The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years in such manner as the state may, by law, determine. "
• This article is not in the 1949 constitution, it was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.

• The process of amendment is mentioned in Article 368 of the Constitution. 
• Three methods of the amendment have been adopted in it -
  • Amendment by ordinary law, 
  • An amendment by a special majority of Parliament, and
  • Special majority of Parliament and approval of State Legislatures.
• The Ninth Schedule was included under the 'First Constitution Amendment (1951)'.