Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in .

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• According to article 128 of the Indian Constitution, the chief justice of India may at any time request a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a retired judge of a high court (who is duly qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court) to act as a judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only with the previous consent of the president and also of the person to be so appointed. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• As a Court Of Record, High Court can review its judgments under Article 226 Of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The Kerala High Court has iterated the legal proposition that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their orders.
• A Division Bench of Chief Justice S Manikumar and Shaji P Chaly were confronted with an appeal against a review petition. 
• The Supreme Court of India
  • It is the highest judicial court and the final court of appeal under the Constitution of India, the highest constitutional court, with the power of judicial review.
  • India is a federal state and has a single and unified judicial system with a three-tier structure, i.e. Supreme Court, High Courts, and Subordinate Courts.
  • The Indian constitution provides for a provision of Supreme Court under Part V (The Union) and Chapter 6 (The Union Judiciary).
  • Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution deal with the organization, independence, jurisdiction, powers, and procedures of the Supreme Court.
  • The Indian constitution under Article 124(1) states that there shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of a Chief Justice of India (CJI) and, until Parliament by law prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other Judges.
  • The Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India can broadly be categorized into original jurisdiction, appellate jurisdiction, and advisory jurisdiction. However, there are other multiple powers of the Supreme Court.
  • The Supreme Court is a Federal court, the highest court of appeal, the guarantor of the fundamental rights of the citizens, and guardian of the Constitution.

The correct answer is 1 only.

• Citizenship in India
  • The Citizenship Act offers other categories of citizenship like Citizenship by Registration (Section 5) and Citizenship by Naturalisation (Section 6).
  • These are basically for foreigners who wish to settle in India and seek Indian citizenship or persons of Indian origin living abroad who want to return to India and live as citizens in this country.
  • Citizenship is listed in the Union List under the Constitution and thus is under the exclusive jurisdiction of Parliament.
  • The Constitution does not define the term ‘citizen’ but details of various categories of persons who are entitled to citizenship are given in Part 2 (Articles 5 to 11).
  • Unlike other provisions of the Constitution, which came into being on January 26, 1950, these articles were enforced on November 26, 1949, itself, when the Constitution was adopted.
  • A person is said to have a domicile in a country in which he/she is considered to have his/her permanent home.
  • A person cannot have more than one domicile. The Constitution of India does not allow holding Indian citizenship and citizenship of a foreign country simultaneously. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • In India, both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President while in the USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  • The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing citizenship whether acquired under the Act or before it under the Constitution, viz, renunciation, termination, and deprivation. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

• Article 11: It empowers Parliament to make any provision concerning the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all matters relating to it.
• There are four ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired: birth, descent, registration, and naturalization. The provisions are listed under the Citizenship Act, 1955.
• The Act does not provide for dual citizenship or dual nationality. It only allows citizenship for a person listed under the provisions above ie: by birth, descent, registration, or naturalization.
• The Act envisages three situations under which a citizen of India may lose his Indian nationality. These are:
• By Renunciation:
• By Termination:
• By Deprivation:

Right to Information Act, 2005: 

• Right to information is a right granted to every citizen of India under the Right to Information Act, 2005 and it came into force on 12 October 2005.
• It is not a Fundamental Right.
• The RTI act replaced the Freedom of Information Act 2002.
• The Right to Information Act relaxes restrictions placed by Official Secrets Act 1923.

Thus, we can say that Right to Information is not included in the Fundamental Rights initially included in the Constitution of India.

There are six Fundamental Rights-

The correct answer is Forms of Oaths or Affirmations.

• The third Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:
  • The members of parliament.
  • The union ministers.
  • The judges of the supreme court.
  • The judges of the high court.
  • The members of the state legislature.
  • The comptroller and auditor general of India.
  • The state ministers.

Schedules of the Indian constitution

The correct answer is England.

• In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from England.
  • In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from the British constitution that is from England.
  • The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship for the whole of India.
  • The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with matters relating to acquisition, determination and termination of Indian citizenship after the commencement of the Constitution.
• The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India.
• The document lays down the framework that demarcates the fundamental political code, structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
• Hence, option 1 is correct. 

• Indian Constitution makes arrangement for federal Structure the existence of Center and States.
• But it provides for Single Citizenship which means all citizens irrespective of the state in which they born enjoy single citizenship of India, unlike the USA where there is dual citizenship.
• According to the Ministry of Home Affairs, there are four ways in which Indian citizenship can be acquired :
  • birth, descent, registration and naturalisation.
• The provisions are listed under sections 3, 4, 5(1) and 5(4) of the Citizenship Act, 1955.

Right to Education Act

• Every child between the ages of 6 to 14 years has the right to free and compulsory education. This is stated as per the 86th Constitution Amendment Act via Article 21A. The Right to Education Act seeks to give effect to this amendment

Main Features of Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009

• Free and compulsory education to all children of India in the 6 to 14 age group.
• No child shall be held back, expelled or required to pass a board examination until the completion of elementary education.
• If a child above 6 years of age has not been admitted in any school or could not complete his or her elementary education, then he or she shall be admitted in a class appropriate to his or her age. However, if a case may be where a child is directly admitted in the class appropriate to his or her age, then, in order to be at par with others, he or she shall have a right to receive special training within such time limits as may be prescribed. Provided further that a child so admitted to elementary education shall be entitled to free education till the completion of elementary education even after 14 years.
• Proof of age for admission: For the purpose of admission to elementary education, the age of a child shall be determined on the basis of the birth certificate issued in accordance with the Provisions of Birth. Deaths and Marriages Registration Act 1856, or on the basis of such other document as may be prescribed. No child shall be denied admission in a school for lack of age proof.
• A child who completes elementary education shall be awarded a certificate.
• Call needs to be taken for a fixed student-teacher ratio.
• Twenty-five per cent reservation for economically disadvantaged communities in admission to Class I in all private schools is to be done.
• Improvement in the quality of education is important.
• School teachers will need adequate professional degree within five years or else will lose the job.
• School infrastructure (where there is a problem) need to be improved in every 3 years, else recognition will be cancelled.
• The financial burden will be shared between the state and the central government.

Chapter III deals with the curriculum and evaluation procedures is not correct.

• Chapter-III: Duties of Appropriate Government, Local Authority, and Parents. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

• Section 26 provides that vacancies in schools should not exceed 10% of the teacher strength for that school.
  • This provision will ensure that States take steps to fill up existing teacher vacancies and also rationalize deployment of teachers in schools to remove urban-rural imbalances in teacher deployment
• Section 28 prohibits private tuition by teachers.
  • Private tuition is one of the ills affecting Indian education, which needs to be addressed.
  • This provision will ensure that teachers do not use their position for commercial gain through private tuition, which is a source of harassment to children and parents. 
• Chapter-VI: Protection of Right of Children.

The correct answer is 35:1.

•  The student-teacher ratio at the upper primary level in schools under the Right to Education (RTE) Act should be 35:1.
• Every child of the age of six to fourteen years shall have a right to free and compulsory education in a neighborhood school till completion of elementary education.
  • Where a child above six years of age has not been admitted in any school or though admitted, could not complete his or her elementary education, then, he or she shall be admitted in a class appropriate to his or her age, no child shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing the elementary education.

​​

• Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009
  • The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act or Right to Education Act (RTE) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4 August 2009.
  • It describes the modalities of the importance of free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution.
  • India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the act came into force on 1 April 2010.
  • The title of the RTE Act incorporates the words ‘free and compulsory’.
    • ‘Free education’ means that no child, other than a child who has been admitted by his or her parents to a school which is not supported by the appropriate Government, shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing elementary education. 
    • ‘Compulsory education’ casts an obligation on the appropriate Government and local authorities to provide and ensure admission, attendance, and completion of elementary education by all children in the 6-14 age group. 

The correct answer is 76.

• Seventy-Six Amendment Act
  • The constitutional amendment deals with the reservation of seats in educational institutes and of appointments or posts in the services under a state, for backward classes, scheduled castes, and scheduled tribes

• Seventy-Third Amendment Act, 1992
  • ​Granted constitutional status and protection to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • For this purpose, the Amendment has added a new Part-IX entitled ‘the panchayats’ and a new Eleventh Schedule containing 29 functional items of the panchayats.
• The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991
  • ​The 69^th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 conferred the UT of Delhi with a special status, and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and designated Delhi’s administrator as the Lieutenant Governor (LG).  
• The Sixty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India,
  • It is officially known as The Constitution (Sixty-second Amendment) Act, 1989, extended the period of reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and representation of the Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies for another ten years, i.e. up to 26 January 2000.

The correct answer is 2 only.

In the case of Ordinary Bill

• Every ordinary bill, after it is passed by the legislative assembly in case of a unicameral legislature or by both the Houses in case of a bicameral legislature either in the first instance or in the second instance, is presented to the governor for his assent.
• He has four alternatives:
  • He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
  • He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an act.
  • He may return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses. If the bill is passed by the House or Houses again with or without amendments and presented to the governor for his assent, the governor must give his assent to the bill. Thus, the governor enjoys only a ‘suspensive veto’.
  • He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
    • When the governor reserves a bill for the consideration of the President, he will not have any further role in the enactment of the bill. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • If the bill is returned by the President for the reconsideration of the House or Houses and is passed again, the bill must be presented again for the presidential assent only.
    • If the President gives his assent to the bill, it becomes an act.
    • This means that the assent of the Governor is no longer required.

In the case of Money Bill

• Every money bill, after it is passed by the state legislature (unicameral or bicameral), is presented to the governor for his assent. He has three alternatives:
  • He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then becomes an act.
  • He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an act.
  • He may reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
• Thus, the governor cannot return a money bill for the reconsideration of the state legislature.
  • Normally, the governor gives his assent to a money bill as it is introduced in the state legislature with his previous permission.
  • When the governor reserves a money bill for the consideration of the President, he will not have any further role in the enactment of the bill.
  • If the President gives his assent to the bill, it becomes an Act.
  • This means that the assent of the governor is no longer required.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• An ordinary bill can originate in either House of the state legislature (in case of a bicameral legislature).
  • Such a bill can be introduced either by a minister or by any other member.
  • The bill passes through three stages in the originating House, viz, 1. The first reading, 2. The second reading, and 3. Third reading.
  • After the bill is passed by the originating House, it is transmitted to the second House for consideration and passage.
  • A bill is deemed to have been passed by the state legislature only when both the Houses have agreed to it, either with or without amendments.
  • In case of a unicameral legislature, a bill passed by the legislative assembly is sent directly to the governor for his assent. 
• In the second House also, the bill passes through all the three stages, that is, first reading, second reading, and third reading.
  • When a bill is passed by the legislative assembly and transmitted to the legislative council, the latter has four alternatives before it:
    1. it may pass the bill as sent by the assembly (i.e. without amendments);
    2. it may pass the bill with amendments and return it to the assembly for reconsideration;
    3. it may reject the bill altogether; and
    4. it may not take any action and thus keep the bill pending.
  • If the council passes the bill without amendments or the assembly accepts the amendments suggested by the council, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses, and the same is sent to the governor for his assent.
  • On the other hand, if the assembly rejects the amendments suggested by the council or the council rejects the bill altogether or the council does not take any action for three months, then the assembly may pass the bill again and transmit the same to the council.
  • If the council rejects the bill again or passes the bill with amendments not acceptable to the assembly or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the assembly for the second time.

• Therefore, the ultimate power of passing an ordinary bill is vested in the assembly. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • At most, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of four months—three months in the first instance and one month in the second instance.
  • The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of a joint sitting of both the Houses to resolve the disagreement between the two Houses over a bill. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • Moreover, when a bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is a and b.

• Article 2 says that-
  • Admission or establishment of new States: Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish new States on such terms and conditions, as it thinks fit.
• Article 3 says that-
  • Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.

• Note that a bill under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution shall be introduced only in either house of the Parliament except on the recommendations of the President.

Under this article (article 3), Parliament has the power to  

(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State;

(b) increase the area of any State;

(c) diminish the area of any State;

(d) alter the boundaries of any State;

(e) alter the name of any State.

The Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council Act 1979 was passed by the parliament after certain movements launched by the indigenous people of Tripura.

• The act was passed under the provision of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution.
• Later, the council was formed on 15 January 1982 under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.

Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC) is an autonomous district council that covers two-third of Tripura's territory.​

• Autonomous Councils are constituted for Social, Economic, Educational, Ethnic and Cultural advancement of the ST communities living in Core Areas as well as in Satellite Areas covering many districts of Assam.
• The objective of the council is to empower the indigenous people of Tripura and to protect their customs, traditions and culture.
• Its other motive is to bring all-around development of the tribal people in Tripura.
• 87.55% of Scheduled Tribes living in the TTAADC area.
• It is governed by a council of 30 members.

• As per the Sixth Schedule, the four states viz. Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram contain the Tribal Areas which are technically different from the Scheduled Areas.
• Though these areas fall within the executive authority of the state, provision has been made for the creation of the District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of certain legislative and judicial powers.
• Each district is an autonomous district and Governor can modify/divide the boundaries of the said Tribal areas by notification.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

• The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, in accordance with Article 244 of the Indian Constitution.
• Passed by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, it aimed at the establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADC), which seek to protect the interests of the tribal community. 
• ADCs are bodies serving a district within the state legislature to which the Constitution has granted varying degrees of autonomy.
• These states' governors are empowered to reorganize the tribal areas' borders.
• She or he can choose to include or exclude any region, increase or decrease the limits, and unite two or more autonomous districts into one.
• They may also, without separate legislation, modify or change the names of autonomous regions.

•  Mizoram is a state in northeastern India, with Aizawl as its seat of government and capital city.
• Total area: 21,081 km²
• Total population: 1,091,014
• Official language: Mizo, English, and Hindi

The correct answer is Health and Sanitation.

• The 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution related to Panchayat was added in 1992 by the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act.
• This schedule contains 29 subjects. 

1. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation, and soil conservation.
2. Minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development.
3. Animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry.
4. Fisheries.
5. Social forestry and farm forestry.
6. Minor forest produces.
7. Small scale industries, including food processing industries.
8.  Khadi, village, and cottage industries.
9. Rural housing.
10. Drinking water.
11. Fuel and fodder.
12. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways, and other means of communication.
13. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity.
14. Non-conventional energy sources.
15. Poverty alleviation program.
16. Education, including primary and secondary schools.
17. Technical training and vocational education.
18. Adult and non-formal education.
19. Libraries.
20. Cultural activities.
21. Markets and fairs.
22. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centers, and dispensaries.
23.  Family welfare.
24. Women and child development.
25. Social welfare, including the welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded.
26. The welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
27. Public distribution system.
28. Maintenance of community assets.
29. Agriculture, including agricultural extension.

The correct answer is Municipality.

• A Nagar Palika or Municipality is an urban local body that administers a city with a minimum population of 100,000 but less than 1,000,000.
• The members of the Nagar Palika are elected representatives for a term of five years.
• The town is divided into wards according to its population, and representatives are elected from each ward.
•  A chief officer, along with officers like an engineer, sanitary inspector, health officer, and education officer who come from the state public service are appointed by the state government to control the administrative affairs of the Nagar Palika.

•  Urban Local government implies the governance of an urban area by the people through their elected representatives.
• 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 provided constitutional status to local urban bodies.
• This act added a new part IX-A to the Constitution entitled as ‘The Municipalities’ and a new Twelfth Schedule containing 18 functional items for municipalities.

• The institutions under the Municipalities are of three types:
  • ​Nagar Panchayat, for a transitional area, i.e., an area which is being transformed from a rural area to an urban area.
  • Municipal Council for a Smaller Urban area.
  • Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area.

The correct answer is 1952.

• In the year 1952, the first Elected Parliament with two houses come into being in India.
  • The first general elections under the new Constitution were held during the year 1951-52.
  • The first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.
  • The Seventeenth Lok Sabha was held in May 2019.

• Indian Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
• The Indian Parliament comprises of the President and the two Houses -
  • Rajya Sabha 
  • Lok Sabha 
• Lok Sabha:
  •  543 members are directly elected by citizens of India on the basis of universal adult franchise representing Parliamentary constituencies across the country.
  •  It has a term of five years.
• Rajya Sabha:
  •  Rajya Sabha or the upper house is a permanent body not subject to dissolution.
  • One-third of the members retire every second year and are replaced by newly elected members.
  • Each member is elected for a term of six years.
• Session of Parliament :
  • The period during which the House meets to conduct its business is called a session.
  • The Constitution empowers the President to summon each House at such intervals that there should not be more than a six-month gap between the two sessions. 
• The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
• The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950. 

The correct answer is 10.

• As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951 in the event of a person being elected to both houses of parliament he has to notify within 10 days.
• The Representation of People Act, 1951 was passed by the Parliament in accordance with Article 327 of the Constitution of India.
• This act also talks about corruption and other illegal activities related to elections.
• It also says about the qualification as well as grounds for the disqualification of MPs and MLAs.
• The Act makes provisions for dispute redressal in matters connected to elections. 

• Salient Features of Representation of the People Act, 1951:
  • A qualified voter is eligible to contest for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
  • Seats that are reserved for the Scheduled Caste and Tribe communities, only that candidates belonging to those categories can contest the elections.
  • If a person found guilty of any of the following shall be disqualified for a period of 6 years to contest elections after release from jail:
    • ​Engaging in terrorism in any form.
    • Bribery.
    • Rape or other grave crimes against women.
    • Spreading religious disharmony.
    • Practicing untouchability.

The correct answer is Nagaland.

• ​The sixth Schedule deals with provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas.
• It includes the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Nagaland is not included in 6th Schedule.

• Articles covered in Sixth Schedule are 244 and 275.
• The Fifth Schedule, on the other hand, deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except Assam, Mizoram, Tripura, and Meghalaya.​
• The President is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area.
• He can also increase or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines, rescind such designation or make fresh orders for such redesignation on an area in consultation with the governor of the state concerned.

The correct answer is Only A.

​​

• Article 101(1) of the Constitution and Section 68(1) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951 
  • Article 101(1) of the Constitution and Section 68(1) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951 talks about If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.
  • If a person is elected simultaneously to both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, he can choose, within 10 days from the later of the dates on which he is chosen to those Houses, the House of which he would like to be a member.
  • The member must imply his choice in writing to the Secretary to the Election Commission of India (ECI).
  • Such information must be informed within the 10-day window. 
  • If not informed his seat in Rajya Sabha will fall vacant at the end of this period.
• Sec 69 and Sec 67A, RPA 1951
  • ​It talks about a person who is already a member of one House and has contested the election for the other House.
  • If a sitting Rajya Sabha member contests and wins a Lok Sabha election, his seat in the Upper House becomes automatically vacant on the date he is declared elected to Lok Sabha.
  • The same applies to a Lok Sabha member who contests an election to Rajya Sabha. 
• Elected on two Lok Sabha seats
  • Sec 70 of RPA, 1951:
    • ​An individual can contest from two parliamentary constituencies.
    • If elected from both, he has to resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the result.
    • If not resign one seat within 14 days of the declaration of the result both his seats shall fall vacant.

• The Representation of the People Act, 1951:
  • The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is an act of Parliament of India to provide for the conduct of the election of the Houses of Parliament and to the Legislature of each State. 
  • It also includes its area of jurisdiction for:
    • The qualifications and disqualifications for membership of the Houses. 
    • Look over the corrupt practices.
    • Other offenses in connection with such elections.
  • Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 the president’s decision is final.
  • However, he should obtain the opinion of the election commission and act accordingly.

The correct answer is Casting Vote.

• Casting vote or the deciding vote of the presiding officer of a deliberative body made when the other votes are equally divided. 
• The Speaker has a casting vote in the event of a tie.  It is customary for the Presiding Officer to exercise the casting vote in such a manner as to maintain the status quo.
• If in a Division the number of `Yes' and `No' is equal, the question is decided by the casting vote of the Chair. 
• Under the Constitution, the Speaker or the person acting as such cannot vote in a Division; he/she has only a casting vote which he/she must exercise in the case of an equality of votes.

​

• Om Birla is the current and 17th Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• M Venkaiah Naidu is the Current Speaker of Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is Neither 1 or 2.

• The Leader of the Opposition is the politician who leads the official opposition in either House of the Parliament of India. To claim the status of “official opposition” in either house a party has to secure 55 seats (10%) of the seats in the Lok Sabha and likewise 25 (10%) of the seats in the Rajya Sabha.
• It received statutory recognition through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 which defines the term “Leader of the Opposition” as that member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. It is not constitutional post. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Leader of that House of the Party in Opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognized, as such, by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

​

Importance of LoP: The shadow PM

• The Westminster model that India follows the opposition is a recognizable entity and the LoP is referred to as the ‘shadow Prime Minister’.
• She/he is expected to be ready to take over if the government falls.
• The LoP also plays an important role in bringing cohesiveness and effectiveness to the opposition’s functioning in policy and legislative work.​

The correct answer is Lok Sabha.

In our country, the Parliament consists of two Houses.

• The two Houses are known as the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• The President of India is a part of the Parliament, although she is not a member of either House.
• That is why all laws made in the Houses come into force only after they receive the assent of the President.
•  It might appear that the Rajya Sabha is more powerful, for sometimes it is called the ‘Upper Chamber’ and the Lok Sabha the ‘Lower Chamber’.
• But this does not mean that Rajya Sabha is more powerful than Lok Sabha.
• This is just an old style of speaking and not the language used in our Constitution. 

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

• The 6 states of India are those that have bicameral legislature they are (Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh).
• At present, 6 states of India have bicameral legislature previously the figure was 7 states but after Jammu and Kashmir become the Union Territory it becomes 6 states.
• Bicameral Legislature is a System of Government in which the Legislature consists of Two Houses. The Modern Bicameral System was started in the beginnings of the Constitutional Government in the 17th century in England and to the later, it also started in the 18th century in the United States and on the Continent of Europe.

• In these 6 states of India with Bicameral Legislature, the Upper House is called State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad), and the State Legislative assembly Lower House is called Vidhan Sabha.
• One-Third member of whose members are elected in every Two years. Among the members of State legislative Councils itself.
• One-Third members are elected by the members of Local Bodies in the state such as Gram Panchayats, Block Development councils, the District councils of India, and Municipalities.
• Another, One-Third members are elected by the Members of Vidhan Sabha of the state from among the Persons who are not members of the State Legislative Assembly.
• The Governor of the state is nominated One-Sixth Members from persons having Knowledge or Practical Experience in Fields such as Science, Arts, the Co-Operative Movement, Literature, and Social Services.
• One-Twelfth of members are elected by persons who are Graduates of three years are eligible to Standing Residing in that state.
• Another, One-Twelfth of members are elected by persons engaged for at least Three Years in Teaching or in any Educational Institutions within the State not lower than Secondary Schools, including Universities and  Colleges.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 5 only.

• India has a bicameral system of legislature. Just as Parliament has two Houses, the states can also have a Legislative Council in addition to the Legislative Assembly through Article 169 of the Constitution.
• Six States which have a Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka.
  • Recently, the Jammu & Kashmir Legislative Council has been abolished through the J&K Reorganisation Bill, 2019, which reduced the State of J&K to the Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh.

• The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
• Accordingly, the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist), if the legislative assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution to that effect.
• Such a specific resolution must be passed by the state assembly by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.
• This Act of Parliament is not to be deemed as an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and is passed like an ordinary piece of legislation (ie, by simple majority).
• The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
  • Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60.
• Unlike the members of the legislative assembly, the members of the legislative council are indirectly elected.
  • The maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly and the minimum strength is fixed at 40

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• The Election Commission of India is mulling over to push for absentee votes to increase the voter base and facilitate higher turnout during polls.

• The proposed reforms of the Election Commission-
  • Linkage of the Aadhar number with voter ID.
  • Allowing voter registration as soon as a person turns 18 years.
  • Ensuring gender-neutral voting rights to service voters.
  • Launching of the digital voter ID for new voters.
• Hence, both statements are correct.
• While the first three require amendments to the Representation to People’s Act, 1951, the fourth one- a Digi locker enabled version of the voter ID is set to be launched on January 25 at a National Voter’s Day event.
• Aadhaar linkage and voter authentication are also considered critical to the commission’s plans to work towards electronic/Internet-based voting and forgiving ‘remote’ voting rights to domestic migrants.
• The Aadhar linkage is pending an amendment to the Representation of People’s Act.
• The EC had assured that privacy and data safety-related concerns would be protected in discussions held until December 2019.
• The EC is now waiting for the government to move the amendment to the Cabinet for approval.
• One of these is a proposed amendment to Section 14(b) of the RP Act, which looks at registration for first-time voters as they turn 18 years of age. Presently, only those who turn 18 on January 1 can apply to register as a voter that year.
• The third recommendation pertaining to voting rights involves amendments to Section 20(6) of the Act — to allow the husband of female service personnel to be registered as a service voter where she holds office.
• As of now, subsection (8) of Section 20 of the Representation of People Act only allows the wife of a male ‘service’ voter to cast her vote as a service voter. This facility is not available to the husband of a female service voter. The current rules also do not permit children of a service voter residing with him to be enrolled as service voters. 

The correct answer is Maharashtra and Gujarat.

• Article 371, Maharashtra and Gujarat,1960.

• Articles 370 – 371J
  • Article 371, Maharashtra and Gujarat,1960.
  • Article 371A (13th Amendment Act, 1962), Nagaland.
  • Article 371B (22nd Amendment Act, 1969), Assam.
  • Article 371C (27th Amendment Act, 1971), Manipur.
  • Article 371D (32nd Amendment Act, 1973; substituted by The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014), Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
  • Article 371 E - Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh.
  • Article 371F (36th Amendment Act, 1975), Sikkim.
  • Article 371G (53rd Amendment Act, 1986), Mizoram.
  • Article 371H (55th Amendment Act, 1986), Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Article 371J (98th Amendment Act, 2012), Karnataka.
  • Article 371I deals with Goa.

The correct answer is during the pleasure of the President.

• According to the Constitution's Article 75 the Union Council of Ministers, the minister shall hold his/her office during the pleasure of President.

• Article 75:
  • The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and on the advice of the Prime Minister other Ministers shall be appointed by the President.
  • The Union Council of  Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  • The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.
  • A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
  • The salaries and allowances of Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time to time by law determine and, until Parliament so determines, shall be as specified in the Second Schedule.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

• The Constitution of India does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister.
• However, Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President.

• Article 75 talks about provisions related to the council of ministers.
  • The total number of the ministers including the Prime Minister, in the council of ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
• Article 74 says that a council of ministers with the PM at the head would aid and advise the President.
• Article 77 talks about the conduct of the business of the Government of India.
• Article 78 talks about the duties of the Prime Minister.

The correct answer is Article 74(1).

• Article 74(1) provides that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as its head.
• Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers to aid & advise the president.
• Article 44 is the Uniform Civil Code for the citizens.
  • Uniform Civil Code will replace personal laws based on the holy books and customs of each major religious community in India.
• Article 21A is added in the Indian Constitution in the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002.
  • It is Right to elementary education.
• Article 34 - Restriction on rights conferred by this Part while martial law is in force in any area.

The correct answer is Justice H. L. Dattu.

• As of August 2018, Justice H. L. Dattu is the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission in India.
  • Justice H. L. Dattu served as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission from 2016 to 2018.
  • He is a former Chief Justice of India.
  • He served as the Chief Justice of India from 2014 to 2015.
  • He also served as the Chief Justice of Kerala High Court and Chhattisgarh High Court.
• The National human rights commission is a statutory (not a constitutional) body.
  • it was established on 12^th October 1993.
  • The National human rights commission is the watchdog of human rights in India.
  • The National human rights commission consists of a chairman and four other members.

• Justice K. G. Balakrishnan was the longest-serving chairman of the National Human Rights Commission.
• Justice Ranganath Misra was the first chairman of the National Human Rights Commission.
• Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the Lokpal of India since 23^rd March 2019.

The correct answer is Justice HL Dattu.

• The chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission is Shri Justice H. L. Dattu.
• The President appoints the chairperson and members of the NHRC for five years or until he is 70 years old (whichever is earlier).
• The National Human Rights Commission's non-constitutional bodies.
• The NHRC is responsible for human rights and established in 1993 under an act of Parliament.
• The human right act of 1993 provides the National, the State Human Rights Commission, and human rights courts.
• 10 December observed World Human Rights Day.
• Headquarter: Delhi

The correct answer is Directive Principles of State Policy.

• The Directive Principles of State Policy of India are the instructions or 15 principles contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India.
• The Directive Principles are categorized as under the following: economic and socialistic, political and administrative, justice and legal, environmental, protection of monuments, peace and security.

​

• The directive principles guarantee that the State shall seek to encourage the welfare of the people by procuring a social order in which social, economic and political justice is informed in all institutions of life as per Article 38 (1).
• The State shall seek to keep down the inequalities in income and set out to eradicate economic inequality and inequalities in status and opportunities, that to not only among individuals but also among groups of people living in different areas or engaged in different vocations per Article 38 (2).
• As per Article 40, the State shall also work for the organisation of village panchayats and help authorize them to function as units of self-government.

The correct answer is Panchayats.

• Part IX of the Indian Constitution contains provisions for the Panchayats.
• Part IX tells about a three-tier Panchayati Raj System which would be constituted in every state at the village level, intermediate level, and district level.
• 73rd  Constitutional Amendment Act added Part IX to the constitution with the title “The Panchayats” covering provisions from Article 243 to 243(O).
• Part VIII contains provisions for Union Territories.
• The fifth Schedule contains provisions for the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Article 244 contains provisions for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.

The correct answer is 1993.

• The National Commission for Backward Class is mentioned under the article 338-B of the Indian constitution.
• It was formed on 14th August 1993.
• The first executive of this commission was Justice (Retd. ) R. N Prasad.
• This commission was the outcome of Indra Sawhney and Ors. Vs Union of India.

• The function of the commission includes investigation of matters related to the safeguards provided for socially and educationally backward classes.
• It inquires into the specific complaint related to the deprivation of the rights of the backward community.
• The commission also participates in the socio-economic development of the backward community.
• It is also responsible for the execution of the plans and schemes of the backward community.

The correct answer is Calcutta High Court.

• The Calcutta High Court is the oldest in India.
• It has jurisdiction over the state of West Bengal and the Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• The High Court building's design is based on the Cloth Hall, Ypres, in Belgium.
• The court has a sanctioned judge strength of 72

• Calcutta High Court was established as the High Court of Judicature at Fort William on July 1, 1862, under the High Courts Act, 1861.
• Barnes Peacock was the first Chief Justice of the High Court.
• The current Chief justice of Calcutta high court is T. B. Radhakrishnan.
• Manjula Chellur is the first woman chief justice of the Kolkata High Court.

The correct answer is 2 and 4 only.

• The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure
  • People's participation in the development
  • Democratic decentralization.

• The 73^rd constitutional amendment has made the following provisions mandatory:
  • Every registered voter in the electoral rolls of the village is part of the village assembly. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Democratic Decentralisation was the main reason for the local self-government which came to be known as Panchayati Raj Institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

• Financial mobilization was never in provisions of the Panchayati raj system for the establishment of Panchayati Raj.
  • Local financial mobilization (by way of octroi taxes etc. ) is the outcome of the establishment of the PRIs, not its objective.
• Political accountability can be ensured in any system which is democratic or rule-based, it need not necessarily be via a local body.

• Simply the provisions of the 73^rd and 74^th constitution amendments have been centered around 3D's (Delegation, decentralization, and devolution).
  • Delegation:
    • Transfer of administration power.
  • Decentralisation: 
    • It is the reality that has been achieved, includes the transfer of administration and financial power.
  • Devolution:
    • It is the dream to be achieved in the future, includes the transfer of power to local bodies.

The correct answer is All of the above.

• The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws that cannot be challenged in courts.
• It was added by the 1^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The first Amendment added 13 laws to the Schedule.
  • The number of protected laws to 284 currently.
• It was created by the new Article 31B. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Article 31A and 31B were brought in by the government to protect laws related to agrarian reform and for abolishing the Zamindari system.
• Article 31A extends protection to ‘classes’ of laws.
• Article 31B shields specific laws or enactments.
• While most of the laws protected under the Schedule concern agriculture/land issues, the list includes other subjects like Reservation.
• Article 31B was enforced retrospectively, which means that if laws are inserted in the Ninth Schedule after they are declared unconstitutional, they are considered to have been in the Schedule since their commencement, and thus valid.

• Although Article 31B excludes judicial review, the Supreme Court has said in the past judgments that even laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated Fundamental Rights or the basic structure of the Constitution.
• In Practice, they are subject to Judicial Review. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Procedure established by Law.

• Article 21. Protection of life and personal liberty.
  • No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.

• Due process of law = Procedure established by law + Fairness of that procedures.
• Procedure established by law - It ascertains the validity of legislation by checking that whether the legislation in question is duly enacted or not.
• Due process of law - It ascertains the validity of law by checking both the procedural and substantial aspects of law i.e. whether or not the law is fair, just, and equitable.
• The scope of judicial review power of the Supreme Court in India is narrower than that of what exists in the US.
• This is because the American Constitution provides for ‘due process of law.
• ​‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 14 is a ‘basic feature’ of the constitution.
• Concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist.
• His concept has the following three elements or aspects: 
  • Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.
  • Equality before the law is equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts.
  • The primacy of the rights of the individual,
    • That is, the constitution is the result of the rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the constitution being the source of the individual rights.

Option 2 is not correct.

• On 13 December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru introduced the “Objectives Resolution” in the Constituent Assembly.
• It was a momentous resolution that outlined the defining ideals of the Constitution of Independent India.
• The framework within which the work of constitution-making was to proceed.
• It proclaimed India to be an
  • “Independent Sovereign Republic”, guaranteed its citizens justice, equality, and freedom,
  • Assured that “adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and Depressed and Other Backward Classes.
  •  As he spoke, he said, his mind went back to the historic efforts in the past to produce such documents of rights.

Thus, we can say that the objective resolution of the Indian constitution was not laid by Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar.

•  Both H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly.
• Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha who was the oldest member at that time was elected as the temporary or interim President of the Assembly, following the French practice.

The correct answer is a Union of State.

• The constitution of India describes India as a Union of State.

• The Union and its Territories:
  • Article 1 describes India, i.e. Bharat, as a Union of States.
  • According to Article 1, the Territory of India can be classified into three categories:
    • Territories of the States.
    • Union Territories.
    • Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
• At present, there are 28 states and 8 Union territories in the country. 
• Article 2 empowers the Parliament to admit into the Union of India, or establish new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.

• Quasi-federal means an intermediate form of state between a unitary state and a federation.
• An unitary state is governed as a single entity in which the central government is ultimately supreme.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 3 only.

• Fundamental rights are embedded in Part III (Articles 12-35).
• Besides the Fundamental Rights included in Part III, there are certain other rights contained in other parts of the Constitution.
• These rights are known as constitutional rights or legal rights or non-fundamental rights.
• The right to vote is a legal right and not a fundamental right. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights.
  • However, the Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
  • It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the constitution. 
  • Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
• Article 301 in Part XIII- deals with freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse. Subject to the other provisions of this Part, trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
  • Therefore statement 4 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Constitutional Right.

Right to Vote

• Right to vote in elections is an important constitutional right.
• What is true of the right to vote, is also true for the ;right to contest the election, that means it is also a constitutional right.
• However, Article 326 of the Constitution provides for universal adult suffrage but does not specifically mention the right to vote.
• It is celebrated on 25th January every year since the year 2011 to mark the Election Commission’s foundation day.
• It encourages more voters to take part in the political process.
• It observes a different theme every year. The theme for the year 2019 was “No voter to be left behind".

• Fundamental Rights:
  • The Fundamental Rights have been described in Articles 12-35, Part III of the Indian Constitution.
    • Right to Equality (Article 14-18)
    • Right to Freedom (Article 19-22)
    • Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)
    • Right to Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)
    • Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)
    • Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) 
  • The Right to Property (Article 31) was deleted from the list of Fundamental Act, 1978. By the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, it is made a normal constitutional right under Act 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.

The correct answer is 1, 2 and 4 only

• The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship. Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or protecting all religions equally and interfere if needed. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• But Article 28 says that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the State.  Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
• The Islamic Central Wakf Council and many Hindu temples of great religious significance are administered and managed by the Indian government.

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru.

• On 13^th December 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic 'Objectives Resolution' in the Assembly.
  • It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
  • This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on 22^nd January 1947.
  • It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages.
  • Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.

• Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was independent India's first Minister of Law and Justice.
  • He was an Indian jurist, economist, politician and social reformer, who inspired the Dalit Buddhist movement and campaigned against social discrimination towards the untouchables.
  • He was considered as the chief architect of the Constitution of India. He was given Bharat Ratna in 1990.
  • He was born on 14^_th April 1891 in Mhow, Indore. He was the first Indian to pursue a doctorate in economics abroad. He was passed away on 6th December 1956.
• Vallabhbhai Jhaverbhai Patel, popularly known as Sardar Patel, was an Indian politician.
  • He served as the First Deputy Prime Minister of India.
• Sir Benegal Narsing Rau, was an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat and statesman known for his key role in drafting the Constitution of India.
  • He was also India's representative to the United Nations Security Council from 1950 to 1952.

The correct answer is a retired judge.

A Lok Adalat means people's court.

A Lok Adalat was established by the government to settle the disputes by mutual consent.

• It is presided over by a sitting or retired judicial officer as the chairman with a lawyer and a social worker.
• Disputes are solved through conciliation and compromise between litigants.
• In Lok Adalat, both parties should agree to the settlement.
• Here, the public can settle Their disputes free of cost. If the fee was paid in the regular court, the fee is refunded after the settlement.
• This court doesn't follow the Evidence Act and any procedural laws strictly.

Thus, it is clear that a Lok Adalat is generally presided over by a retired judge.

• The idea of Lok Adalat was advocated by a former Chief Justice of India, Justice P.N. Bhagawati.
• The first Lok Adalat was held in Gujarat on 14 March 1982.

The correct answer is in July 2017.

• In July 2017, Ram Nath Kovind has been elected as the 14th President.

• He is the current President of India.
• He was also Governor of Bihar in 2015.
• He succeeded Late. Pranab Mukherjee.
• He was a lawyer in Delhi High court and Supreme court, before coming to politics.
• He was born in Uttar Pradesh.
• The oath was taken by him in 25th July 2017.

• He is the first Indian President, who is from Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh.
• He served as the spokesperson of BJP in 2010.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• President’s Rule :
  • Grounds of Imposition :
    • Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Notably, the president can act either on a report of the governor of the state or otherwise too (i.e., even without the governor’s report).
    • Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
    • Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Parliamentary Approval and Duration :
    • A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
    • However, if the proclamation of President’s Rule is issued at a time when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha takes place during the period of two months without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha approves it in the meantime.
    • If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the President’s Rule continues for six months.
    • It can be extended for a maximum period of three years with the approval of the Parliament, every six months.
  • Consequences of President’s Rule :
    • S/He can take up the functions of the state government and powers vested in the governor or any other executive authority in the state.
    • S/He can declare that the powers of the state legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament.
    • S/He can take all other necessary steps including the suspension of the constitutional provisions relating to anybody or authority in the state.
• The President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly. In case of dissolution, fresh elections are held for constituting a new legislative assembly in the state. 
• Hence statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

• Article 22 of the Indian constitution provides protection against arbitrary arrest and detention.
• Though the police have been given various powers for facilitating the making of arrests, the powers are subject to certain restraints. 
• The accused in India are afforded certain rights in the Indian Constitution.
• One cannot be arrested and also detained without being informed why he is being arrested.
• According to article 22, an arrested person must be produced before the nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest.
• The arrested person has the right to be informed at the time of arrest of the offence for which the person is being arrested.

• Article 15 of the Indian constitution deals with the prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
• Article 16 of the Indian constitution deals with the equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
• Article 300 A of the Indian constitution deals with the right to property.