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The correct answer is Bhopal.

• The state's Agro Industries Corporation Headquarters is located in the Bhopal district of Madhya Pradesh. The district was carved out on 13th September 1972.
• In Bhopal, many tourist spots are there like Van Vihar National Park, Tajul Masjid (Largest Mosque in India), known as "The City of Lakes", Bhimbetka caves (35 km from here).
• In this city, many educational institutions and hospitals are situated NIT, IIFM (Indian Institute of Forest Management), NLU (National Law University), AIIMS, and SPA (School of Planning Architecture).

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The Correct Answer is 1, 2 and 3.

• Universal Declaration of Human Rights was proclaimed under UNGA resolution 217 A in Paris.
• It states that
  • All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights.
  • They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood.
• Article 3 of the Universal Declaration of Human Right States that 
  • Everyone has the right to life, liberty, and security of person.
• The Preamble of India also speaks about “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity”. Hence 1 is Correct.
• Article 22 of UHDR asserts that economic, social and cultural rights are indispensable for human dignity and development of the human personality.
• Similar concepts are also present in the DPSP of Indian Constitution.
• Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions duties.
• A similar concept that was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A).

The correct answer is Lucknow.

• Lucknow is the bench of Allahabad High Court established.
• The High Court has the most number of judges is the Allahabad High Court.
• Justice Rajesh Bindal is the current Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court.

High Court 

• High Court is the highest judiciary court in an Indian State.
• The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the President after the consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the State concerned.
• Judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President.
• The oath of affirmation to the judges of the High Court is administered by the Governor of the State.
• A judge of the High court can resign his office by writing a letter to the President.
• The judges of the High court shall hold the office till he attained the age of 62 years.
• The Parliament can establish a common High Court for two or more states and Union Territories.
• Indian High Court Act was passed in 1861 during the period of Lord Canning.
• The institution of the High Court was originated in India in 1862 when the three High Courts at Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras.
• Delhi is the only one union Territory having a High Court.
• Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court in India.

• Article 214 - High Court for each state.
• Article 226 - Empowers the high court to issue writs.
• The first Indian to become the Chief Justice of High court - P. B. Chakravarthi (Calcutta High Court).
• The first Indian to become the judge of the High court - Sambhunath Pandit (Calcutta High Court).
• The first woman Chief Justice of High court - Leila Seth (Himachal Pradesh).
• The first woman to become the judge of the High court - Anna Chandi (Kerala).
• The total number of High Courts in India - 25.

The correct answer is Vidhan Parishad.

• The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in the Parliament of India as per article 169.
• To create or to abolish a state legislative council, the state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must be supported by the majority of the strength of the house and the 2/3rd majority of the present and voting (Absolute + Special Majority).
• When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed. However, still, such type of law is not considered a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368.
• The resolution to create and abolish a state legislative council is to be asserted by the President also.

• Lok Sabha
  • Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of the people chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage.
  • The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by the election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories, and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the Hon'ble President,
  • The remaining 2 shall be nominated by the President from the Anglo Indian community.
    • But in January 2020, Anglo Indian seats reserved in Parliament and state legislature of India was abolished.
    • It was abolished by 126^th Constitutional Amendment Bill of 2019 and enacted as the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act.
  • The total elective membership is distributed among the States in such a way that the ratio between the number of seats allotted to each State and the population of the State is, so far as practicable, the same for all States.

• Rajya Sabha
  • The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President.
  • Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of the members retire every second year and are replaced by newly elected members. Each member is elected for a term of six years.
  • The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
  • The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members. Besides, there is also a panel of "Vice Chairmen" in the Rajya Sabha. The senior-most minister, who is a member of Rajya Sabha, is appointed by the Prime Minister as Leader of the House.

   The correct answer is Article 326.

• Article 326:
  • Article 326 of the Constitution provides that the elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be on the basis of adult suffrage, that is to say, a person should not be less than 21 years of age.

• Article 301 establishes the fundamental principle that India must be a common market: Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse.
  • Subject to the other provisions of this Part, trade, commerce and intercourse throughout the territory of India shall be free.
• Article 300A requires the state to follow due procedure and authority of law to deprive a person of his or her private property.
• Article 261 states that "Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State"

2 and 3 only are NOT correct.

• Rajasthan High Court:
  • It was established on 29th August 1949 under the Rajasthan High Court Ordinance, 1949.
  • The principal seat of the Rajasthan high court is at Jodhpur.
  • Rajasthan high court has a sanctioned judge strength of 50.
    • Hence 2 and 3 are not correct.

• The principal seat of Rajasthan high court is at Jodhpur and another high-court bench is at Jaipur.
• Justice Akil Kureshi is the new Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court.
• The First Chief Justice of Rajasthan high court was Kamala Kant Verma.

• The high court judge is appointed and removed by the President of India.
• The retirement age of a high-court judge is 62.
• Qualification for judge of the high court:
  • A person should be a citizen of India.
  • The person should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years.
  • The person should have been an advocate of the high court(s) for ten years.

The correct answer is 2014.

• Telangana became the 29th state of India in the 2014 year. 
• After various stages, the bill was placed in the Parliament of India in February 2014.
• In February 2014, Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014 bill was passed by the Parliament of India for the formation of Telangana state comprising ten districts from north-western Andhra Pradesh.
• Telangana, as a geographical and political entity, was born on June 2, 2014, as the 29th and the youngest state in the Union of India.
• However, as an economic, social, cultural, and historical entity, it has a glorious history of at least two thousand five hundred years or more.

• The word "Telinga" changed over time to "Telangana" and the name "Telangana" was designated to distinguish the predominantly Telugu-speaking region of the erstwhile Hyderabad State from its predominantly Marathi-speaking one, Marathwada. 
• On 2nd June 2014, the northwestern part of Andhra Pradesh was separated and 29th state Telangana was created with Hyderabad as its capital.
• The Andhra State Act (1953) formed the first linguistic state of India, known as the state of Andhra, by taking out the Telugu speaking areas from the State of Madras (now Tamil Nadu).
• The States Reorganisation Act (1956) merged the Telugu-speaking areas of Hyderabad state with the Andhra state to create the enlarged Andhra Pradesh state.
• The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act (2014) bifurcated Andhra Pradesh into two separate states, namely, the Andhra Pradesh (residuary) and the Telangana.
• Four icons of Telangana are:
  • State Bird - Palapitta (Indian Roller or Blue Jay).
  • State Animal - Jinka (Deer).
  • State Tree - Jammi Chettu (Prosopis Cineraria).
  • State Flower - Tangedu (Tanner’s Cassia).

The correct answer is National Investment Fund.

National Investment Fund:

• The government had constituted the National Investment Fund in November 2005 into which the proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises were to be channelized.
• The corpus of NIF was to be of a permanent nature and it is to be professionally managed to provide sustainable returns to the Government, without depleting the corpus.
• Selected Public Sector Mutual Funds, namely UTI Asset Management Company Ltd., SBI Funds Management Private Ltd. and LIC Mutual Fund Asset Management Company Ltd. were entrusted with the management of the NIF corpus.
• As per this Scheme, 75% of the annual income of the national investment fund was to be used for financing selected social sector schemes which promote education, health and employment. The residual 25% of the annual income of NIF was to be used to meet the capital investment requirements of profitable and revivable PSUs.

The correct answer is the Concurrent List.

• Under Schedule VII of the Constitution, the subject 'Education' lies under the Concurrent List.
• The 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union government and the State government.
• The Constitution provides for a three-fold distribution of legislative subjects between the Union and the states, i.e, List-I (the Union List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the Concurrent List), described in this schedule:
  • ​Union List: This List contains matters of national importance and the matters which require uniformity of legislation nationwide. This list has at present 98 subjects like defence, naturalization & citizenship, banking, foreign affairs, atomic energy, communication, census, etc.
  • State List: This List contains matters of regional and local importance which require state-specific solution and the matters which permit diversity of interest. It presently contains 66 subjects like public order, police, public health and sanitation, agriculture, local government, gambling, etc.
  • Concurrent List: This List contains matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the country is desirable but is not essential. This List at present has 47 subjects like criminal law and procedure, education, civil procedure, marriage and divorce, population control and family planning, electricity, economic and social planning, etc.
• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List, that is, (a) education, (b) forests, (c) weights and measures, (d) protection of wild animals and birds, and (e) administration of justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.

The correct answer is option 4.

• Every Information Commissioner shall hold office “for such term as may be prescribed by the Central Government” or till he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and shall not be eligible for reappointment as such Information Commissioner.
• The 2005 act was amended in 2019.
• CIC is not eligible for reappointment.
• Under the provision of Section-12 of RTI Act 2005, the Central Government shall, by notification in the Official Gazette, constitute a body to be known as the Central Information Commission.
• The Central Information Commission shall consist of the Chief Information Commissioner (CIC) and a number of Central Information Commissioners not exceeding 10 as may be deemed necessary.

The correct answer is in 1976.

• By the 42^nd Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976, Fundamental Duties of the citizens have also been enumerated.
• Article 51'A', contained in Part IV A of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
• These enjoin upon a citizen among other things, to abide by the Constitution, to cherish and follow noble ideals, which inspired India's struggle for freedom, to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so, and to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities.
• Fundamental duties. It shall be the duty of every citizen of India (Article, 51A)
  • to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  • to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
  • to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India;
  • to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
  • to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
  • to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;
  • to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures;
  • to develop the scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
  • to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
  • to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;
  • who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

The correct answer is 1 only.

• Election Commission of India:
  • ​The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
  • Since its inception in 1950 and till 15 October 1989, the election commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner. On 16 October 1989, the president appointed two more election commissioners to cope with the increased work of the election commission on account of lowering
    the voting age from 21 to 18 years. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Powers and functions:
    • ​The powers and functions of the Election Commission with regard to elections to the Parliament, state legislatures and offices of President and Vice-President.
    • The Election Commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • The Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
    • The Election Commission of India provides election symbols for newly registered parties. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

The correct answer is 2005.

• The Right to Information Act, 2005 has been enacted by the Parliament and has come into force from 15 June 2005.
• The RTI Bill was passed by the Parliament of India on 15 June 2005.
• Every day on average, over 4800 RTI applications are filed.
• This act was enacted in order to consolidate the fundamental right in the Indian constitution's freedom of speech.

• Article 19 states that "Everyone has the right to freedom of opinion and expression, this right includes freedom to hold opinions without interference and to seek, receive and impart information and ideas through any media and regardless of frontiers". 
• Right to Information Act, 2005 comes under the Right to freedom of speech.
• The right to Freedom is a Fundamental Right that comes under Article 19 to Article 22.

• As of now, there are 470 articles in 25 parts, 104 amendments, 5 appendices, and 12 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
• When it was first made, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules in it, thus being the world’s lengthiest written constitution.

The correct answer is 2009.

• The Right to free and compulsory education act was enacted in 2009.
• Article 21 A of the Indian constitution says that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age between 6 to 14 years.
• The Right to education became a fundamental right by the 86^th amendment act of 2002.
• The Right to education act was passed by the parliament on 4^th August 2009.
• The Right to education act came into force on 1^st April 2010.
• India became one of 135 countries to make education a fundamental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1^st April 2010.
• The Right to education act defines elementary education as, education from first to eighth class.

The correct answer is Article 371 A.

• The Governor of Nagaland has special responsibilities with respect to law and order which shall be exercised after consulting the Council of Ministers on the basis of his individual judgment under Article 371 A.
• Article 371 of the Constitution includes “special provisions” for 11 states, including six states of the Northeast.

• Article 371A:
  • ​Parliament cannot legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, the Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law.
  • Parliament also cannot intervene in ownership and transfer of land and its resources, without the concurrence of the Legislative Assembly of the state.
  • This provision was inserted in the Constitution after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
  • Also, there is a provision for a 35-member Regional Council for Tuensang district, which elects the Tuensang members in the Assembly.
  • A member from the Tuensang district is Minister for Tuensang Affairs. The Governor has the final say on all Tuensang-related matters.​

• Article 371 - Special provision with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• Article 371 A - Special provision with respect to the State of Nagaland.
• Article 371 B - Special provision with respect to the State of Assam.
• Article 371 C - Special provision with respect to the State of Manipur.
• Article 371 D - Special provisions with respect to the State of Andhra Pradesh.
• Article 371 E - Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh.
• Article 371 F Special provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim.
• Article 371 G - Special provision with respect to the State of Mizoram.
• Article 371 H -Special provision with respect to the State of Arunachal Pradesh.
• Article 371 I -Special provision with respect to the State of Goa.
• Article 371 J - Special provision with respect to the State of Karnataka. 

The correct answer is Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar.

• On 29 August 1947, the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution for India.
• The Constituent Assembly of India was elected to write the Constitution of India.
• It was elected by the 'Provincial Assembly'.
• Following India's independence from British Government in 1947, its members served as the nation's first Parliament.

Chairmen of some important committees formed during the making of the Constitution:

• Union Power Committee - Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
• State Power Committee - Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
• Provincial Committee - Sardar Patel
• Union constitution Committee - Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
• Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad 

The Correct Answer is Ranchi.

• Ranchi is the capital of Jharkhand.
• The center of the Jharkhand movement was Ranchi, which called for a separate state for the tribal areas of western West Bengal, South Bihar, northern Orissa, and the eastern part of what is now Chhattisgarh.
• By dividing the Bihar divisions of Santhal Parganas and Chota Nagpur, the Jharkhand state was created on 15 November 2000.
• Ranchi has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be constructed as a smart city under PM Narendra Modi's flagship Smart Cities Mission.

• The Jharkhand state shares its boundaries with the northern states of Bihar, northwest of Uttar Pradesh, west of Chhattisgarh, south of Odisha, and east of West Bengal.
• It has 79,710 km² of surface area. It is by area the 15th largest state and by population the 14th largest. Hindi is the state's official language.

• Patna is Bihar's largest and capital city.
• Patna is an ancient city in Bihar, northeast India, that spreads along the south bank of the Ganges River. 

The Correct Answer is Telugu Desam Party.

• Telugu Desam Party is an Indian State Political Party is led by N. Chandra Babu Naidu.
• In Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, the Telugu Desam Party is a regional Indian political party active in the southern states.
• The party was founded on 29 March 1982 by N. T. Rama Rao. Since 1995, the party has been led by the former Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Chandrababu Naidu.
• The headquarters for the party is situated at NTR Bhavan in Hyderabad.
• In 1983, within nine months of the party's founding, Rama Rao became Andhra Pradesh's 10th Chief Minister, thus establishing the first non-Indian National Congress (INC) government in Andhra Pradesh. From 1984 to 1989, the TDP was the first regional party to become the largest opposition party at the 8th Lok Sabha.
• The TDP left the National Democratic Alliance of Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 16 March 2018 (NDA).

• The founder of All India Forward Bloc was Subhas Chandra Bose.
•  In India Against Corruption movement organised by Anna Hazare and Arvind Kejriwal, the AAP(Aam Aadmi Party) has its roots.
• Asom Gana Parishad(AGP) was the result of the six-year Assam Agitation led by the All Assam Students' Union against illegal infiltration into Assam by foreigners from Bangladesh.

The correct answer is States Reorganization Act, 1956.

• The death of Potti Sriramulu after fifty-eight days hunger strike demanding a separate state of Andra leads to the formation of the states Reorganization Act, 1956.
• The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 drastically redrew the boundaries of states and territories in India, organizing them along linguistic lines.
• Andra is the first state formed on a linguistic basis in India.
  • Andra state was formed on 1st October 1953.
  • Andra was changed to Andra Pradesh in 1956.

• After the creation of Andhra state in 1953, other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states.
• The central government appointed a state reorganization commission in 1953 to look into the question of redrawing the boundaries of states.
• The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956 and it led to the creation of 14 states and six union territories.
• The commission recommended the redrawing of the district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada, and Telugu speakers respectively.

The correct answer is Article 17.

• Article 17- Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offense punishable in accordance with.
• The Untouchability (Offences) Act, which commands punishments for the practice of untouchability and abolishes this disgraceful practice, came into force on 1st June 1955.

The correct answer is Pune.

A Crime Investigation Department (CID) is a part of the State Police Services of India answerable for the examination of wrongdoing, in light of the Criminal Investigation Departments of British police powers.

Maharashtra State Criminal Investigation Department (CID) was set up in 1905 and is settled in Pune.

• It works under the leadership of the Additional Director General of Police.
• CID has embraced genuine, shocking, and convoluted examinations including financial cheats.
• These are endowed to CID every once in a while by the State Govt., the Higher Courts, and DGP Maharashtra.
• State Crime Records Bureau (SCRB) is a significant division of CID which keeps up significant information and measurements relating to wrongdoing and hoodlums for the entire State.

1. This division likewise houses Finger Print Bureau (FPB) and The Documents Examinations Bureau delivering significant help with the examination.

• Wrongdoing and Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS) is a driven undertaking of Govt. of India and CID. It is the nodal organization for its execution in Maharashtra.
• The most significant segment of the CCTNS is its Citizen's Portal.

The correct answer is France.

The International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL)

• The International Criminal Police Organisation (INTERPOL) is an international organization that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control.
• It originated with the first International Criminal Police Congress in 1914, which brought officials from 24 countries to discuss cooperation on law enforcement matters.
• It was founded in 1923 as the International Criminal Police Commission (ICPC).
• In 1946, after the end of World War II, the organization was revived as the International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO) by officials from Belgium, France, Scandinavia, and the UK.
• In 1956, the ICPC adopted a new constitution and the name INTERPOL.
• It is headquartered in Lyon, France. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
• It has seven regional bureaus worldwide and a National Central Bureau (NCB) in all 194 member states, making it the world’s largest police organization.
• India has been a member since 1956.
• India maintains NCB which serves as the national platform for cooperation between domestic law enforcement units and the international police community.
• The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is designated as the National Central Bureau of India.

The correct answer is Members of a Trade Union.

• A pressure group is an organised group of people which are active in pursuing common interests.
• Pressure groups try to bring a change in public policy by exerting pressure on the government.
• The pressure groups are also called interest groups or vested groups.
• They do not have direct political party power.
• They are concerned with specific programs and issues and their activities are confined to the protection and promotion of the interests of their members by pressuring the government.
• The pressure groups influence the policy-making in the government through legal and legitimate methods like lobbying, correspondence, publicity, propagandising, petitioning, public debating, legislations, etc.

•  Business Groups:
  • FICCI
  • ASSOCHAM etc
• Trade Unions:
  • AITUC
  • INTUC
  • Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh (BMS)
• Professional Groups:
  • Bar Council of India (BCI)
• Agrarian Groups-
  • All India Kisan Sabha
  • Bharatiya Kisan Union etc
• Student’s Organisations:
  • Akhila Bhartiya Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP)
  • All India Students Federation (AISF)
  • National Students Union of India (NSUI)
• Religious Groups:
  • Rashtriya Swayam Sevak Sangh (RSS),
  • Vishwa Hindu Parishad (VHP),
  • Jamaat-e-Islami, etc.

• Linguistic Groups:
  • Tamil Sangh
  • Tribal Groups – National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN)
  • Tribal National Volunteers
  • Tribal League of Assam, etc.
• Ideology based Groups:
  • Narmada Bachao Andolan
  • Chipko Movement.
• Anomic Groups:
  • Naxalite Groups
  • United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA) 

• Types of Pressure Groups:
  • Institutional Interest Groups
  • Associational Interest Group
  • Non-Associational Interest Groups
  • Anomic Interest Groups

The correct answer is Jhansi.

• Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute
  • It is located in Jhansi, Uttar Pradesh.
  • It was established in 1962.
  • It is mandated to conduct basic, strategic, applied and adaptive research; development and training in forage production and its utilization.
  • It is under the administrative control of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
  • It has three Regional stations to cater to forage related location-specific R&D needs of humid tropics (at Dharwad), semi-arid and arid (at Avikanagar) and temperate (at Srinagar/ Palampur).
• Director- Dr Amaresh Chandra.

The correct answer is ​The states.

• Parts of the Indian Constitution -  

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

• Global Ocean Commission:
  • Global Ocean Commission was an international initiative between 2013 and 2016 to raise awareness, and promote action to address the degradation of the ocean and help restore it to full health and productivity.
  • Its focus was on the high seas the vast ocean areas that lie beyond the Exclusive Economic Zones of individual states.
  • International Sea bed Authority’s mandate is to ensure the effective protection of the marine environment from harmful effects that may arise from deep-seabed related activities.
  • States Parties to UNCLOS organize and control all mineral-resources-related activities through ISA. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • India has been allotted a site of 75,000 square kilometres in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) by the International Seabed Authority (ISA) for the exploitation of Polymetallic Nodules (PMN).
  • The Ministry of Earth Sciences is carrying out exploration activities for Poly-metallic Nodules (PMN) in the CIOB and for Poly-metallic Sulphides (PMS) in parts of Central and South-West Indian ridges.
  • India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor’ in 1987 and was given an area of about 1.5 lakh sq km in the CIOB for nodule exploration.
  • In 2002, India signed a contract with the ISA and after complete resource analysis of the seabed 50 per cent was surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000 sq km. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It has been estimated that 380 million metric tonnes of PMN and rare earth minerals are available at the bottom of the seas in the Central Indian Ocean. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

The correct answer is Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

• Vande Matram was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.
  • It is the National song of India.
  • It was first composed in the Sanskrit language in the year of 1870s (1875).
  • Later in 1882, it was included in the Bengali novel Anandamath.
  • The song was a source of inspiration to the people who struggled for freedom.
  • It was first sung in the Indian National Congress 1896.

• Other notable works of Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya:
  • Durgesh Nandini, Kapalkundala, Komalakanter Doptor, Mrinalini, Krishnakanter Will, Bishbrikhsha, Rajsingho, Sitaram, Devi Chaudhurani.

The correct answer is 33%.

• 33% of members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years.

• The Vice-President is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• Rajya Sabha was constituted on 3rd April 1952.
• Rajya Sabha is constituted under Article 80.
• The fourth schedule to the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories.
• It is known as the 'Upper House'.
• It is known as the 'Council of States'.
• It is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
• The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250 (238 are elected members and 12 members are nominated by the President) having special knowledge or practical experience in the fields of science, literature, arts, and social service.
• At present, there are 245 members in the Rajya Sabha. Out of which 233 are elected members and 12 are nominated members.
• There is no seat reserved for SCs and STs in Rajya Sabha.
• The tenure of a member of the Rajya Sabha is 6 years.
• One-third of its members retire every two years.
• The members are indirectly elected and nominated by means of a single transferable vote.

The correct answer is 1955.

• State Bank of India is an Indian multinational, public sector banking and financial services statutory body.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• SBI is the 43rd largest bank in the world and ranked 236th in the Fortune Global 500 list of the world's biggest corporations of 2019.

• Chairperson: Dinesh Kumar Khara
• Headquarters: Mumbai
• Founded: 1 July 1955
• Subsidiaries: SBI Card, SBI Life Insurance, etc.

• The Bank is actively involved since 1973 in non-profit activity called Community Services Banking.
• All SBI branches and administrative offices throughout the country sponsor and participate in a large number of welfare activities and social causes. 
• SBI is more than banking because we touch the lives of people anywhere in many ways.

The Correct Answer is a directive Principle of State Policy.

• Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy.
• Article 50 prescribes the Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
• Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) is not enforceable.

Preamble

• The Preamble is an introductory and explanatory statement in a document that explains the document’s purpose and underlying philosophy.
• The Preamble is a part of the constitution.
• The Preamble sets out the aims and aspirations of the people and these have been embodied in various provisions of the constitution.

Seventh Schedule

• The 7th Schedule deals with the separation of legislative powers between Union and State.
• The seventh schedule is divided into the Union and State subjects on which they can make laws.
• It comprises the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.

The correct answer is Part X.

The Constitution of India is grouped into 25 parts which are as follows:-   

The correct answer is Preamble.

• The Preamble contained in the Indian Constitution has been considered as the 'Soul of the Constitution'.

• The Preamble mentions the basic philosophy and the political, religious and moral fundamental values which are the basis of our Constitution.
• Another member of the same Constituent Assembly, Pandit Thakur Das Bhargava has said in relation to the Preamble of the Constitution that "The Preamble is the most respected part of the Constitution".
• It is the soul of the Constitution.
• This is the key to the constitution. It is the ornament of the constitution.
• This is an appropriate place from which Kai can also evaluate the constitution.

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

• Independence of judiciary means that the other organs of the government like the executive and legislature must not restrain the functioning of the judiciary in such a way that it is unable to do justice.
• judges must be able to perform their functions without fear or favor. 
• The Indian Constitution has ensured the independence of the judiciary through a number of measures.
• The legislature is not involved in the process of appointment of judges. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Thus, it was believed that party politics would not play a role in the process of appointments.
  • In order to be appointed as a judge, a person must have experience as a lawyer and/or must be well versed in the law.
  • The judges have a fixed tenure. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • They hold office till reaching the age of retirement.
    • Only in exceptional cases, judges may be removed.
    • Security of tenure ensures that judges could function without fear or favor.
    • The Constitution makers believed that a difficult procedure of removal would provide security of office to the members of the judiciary.
  • The judiciary is not financially dependent on either the executive or legislature. Hence statement 4 is correct.
    • The Constitution provides that the salaries and allowances of the judges are not subjected to the approval of the legislature.
    • The actions and decisions of the judges are immune from personal criticisms.
  • The judiciary has the power to penalize those who are found guilty of contempt of court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
    • Parliament cannot discuss the conduct of the judges except when the proceeding to remove a judge is being carried out.
    • This gives the judiciary independence to adjudicate without fear of being criticized.

Appellate Courts are the part of the judicial system that is responsible for hearing appeals that have already been heard in a trial level or other lower court. 

• Appellate courts are present at the state and federal levels. These courts do not include a jury.
• In India, the appellate system provides people with the provision for appeal to a higher court against the decision of a lower court.
• It is a part of the judicial system which reviews the appeals of legal cases that have already been heard in lower courts.
• For example, Challenging the judgement of the lower court in the High court or Supreme court. 
• In the Trial Courts, the lawyers present evidence and legal arguments to persuade the jury in a jury trial or the judge in a bench trial.
• In Appellate Courts, the lawyers simply argue legal and policy issues before the judge or a group of judges.

Hence, it becomes clear that the appellate system in India gives the provision for appeal to a higher court against the decision of a lower court.

The Correct Answer is From registered voters of villages/villages coming to the Panchayat Circle.

• The Gram Sabha for each Panchayat Circle consisting of the persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to the village or the group of villages comprised within the area of the Panchayat

• Features of the Gramsabha for Rajasthan
  • There shall be at least two meetings of the Gram Sabha every year, one in the first and the
    other in the last quarter of the financial year:
  • Provided that upon a requisition in writing by more than one-tenth of the total number of members of the Gram Sabha or, if required by the Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad or the State Government, a meeting of the Gram Sabha shall be held within fifteen days of such requisition or requirement.
  • The quorum for a meeting of the Gram Sabha shall be one-tenth of the total number of members out of which presence or members belonging to the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Backward Classes and Women members shall be in proportion to their population.

• Rajasthan was the first state to establish Gram panchayat.
• Nagur village was the first village where Gram panchayat was established, on 2 October 1959.

The correct answer is Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modification of provisions in their application to the Scheduled Area) Act, 2011.

• Rajasthan Panchayati Raj (Modification of provisions in their application to the Scheduled Area) Act, 2011 has the provision of Joint Meeting Of Gram Sabha.

• Joint meetings of Gram Sabhas-
  • Every Gram Sabha is competent to execute its functions in its jurisdiction, but in matters like management of resources, construction of roads, etc. in which co-ordination with other Gram Sabhas is required, a joint meeting of all Gram Sabhas falling under the jurisdiction of the Gram panchayat can be conducted.
  • The joint meeting of Gram Sabhas shall be conducted as per the rules of Gram Sabha as if all the Gram Sabhas were a single entity.
  • The joint meeting shall be chaired by the Sarpanch.
  • In the joint meeting, attendance of a minimum of 5% members or 10 members from each Gram Sabha, whichever is less, shall be mandatory. In case there is no quorum, the date of the next meeting shall be finalized on the same day and the same shall be informed to all Gram Sabhas.
  • The decision-making process shall be the same as in the case of a single Gram Sabha meeting. 

The Constitution distinguishes three organs of the State – the legislative, executive and judiciary with specific powers and responsibilities assigned to each of these organs.

• The Legislative consists of the Parliament and the State Legislatures.
• The Executive consists of the Council of Ministers and the officials of the ministries, both at the Union and State levels.
• The Judiciary consists of the Supreme Court, High Courts and subordinate courts in different States.
• The enclave displays original chairs of the Speaker of the Parliament, the Prime minister of India, and the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, with an interactive computer multi-media for the study of the three organs of the State.

Thus, it is clear that according to the constitution, the State has 3 organs.

• Together, they perform the functions of the government, maintain law and order and look after the welfare of the people.
• The Constitution ensures that they work in coordination with each other and maintain a balance among themselves.
• In a parliamentary system, executive and the legislature are interdependent: the legislature controls the executive, and, in turn, is controlled by the executive. 

Federalism- 

• Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
• Usually, a federation has two levels of government.
• One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest.
• The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state.
• Both these levels of governments enjoy their power independent of the other.
• The exact balance of power between the central and the state government varies from one federation to another.
• This balance depends mainly on the historical context in which the federation was formed.
• There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
• The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
• This type of ‘coming together’ federations include the USA, Switzerland and Australia.
• In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal government.
• The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government.
• India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. 
• In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States.
• Very often different constituent units of the federation have unequal powers. Some units are granted special powers.

 Some of the key features of federalism:

• There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government. Hence option 1 is correct. 
• Indian federalism resembles the “CANADIAN MODEL”.
• Article 1 describes India as a UNION of states. 
• It is not a result of an agreement between states and states have no right to secede from the federation. 
• It’s an Indestructible union of destructible states.

The correct answer is Both Article 20 and Article 21.

• Article 359 authorizes the President of India to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a national emergency.
• Under a Presidential order, the state government can make any law or can take any executive action abridging or taking away the specified Fundamental Rights.
  • It can extend to the whole of India, or part of it.
  • It can be removed by Presidential order.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricts the scope of Article 359 in two ways:
  • The President of India cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21.
  • The laws which are related to the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws and the executive action taken only under such a law is protected.

The correct answer is Gwalior.

• The Head-office of the Auditor General is situated in the Gwalior district of Madhya Pradesh. In this district, many other institutions are also there like Madhya Pradesh Land Revenue Training and Security Training Institute, Madhya Pradesh High Court Benches, Indian Institute of Information Technology and Management, Patwari Training Institute, etc.
• The ancient name of the Gwalior district was Gopanchal. This district is known as the revenue headquarters of Madhya Pradesh state.
• In Gwalior, the tomb of Rani Laxmi Bai located here. Asia's first Physical Training college (LNIPE) is situated in Gwalior.

• Currently, the 15th Finance commission is going on and the Chairman of this commission is Mr. N.K Singh.

The Correct Answer is Guwahati High Court.

• The principal seat of the Guwahati High Court is at Guwahati in Assam.
• The court has 3 outlying benches.
• These are:
  • The Kohima bench for Nagaland state (established on 1 December 1972)
  • The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state (established on 5 July 1990)
  • The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state (established on 12 August 2000)
• Previously Guwahati High Court had 6 benches.

• Bombay High Court is one of the oldest High Courts of India. It is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Its jurisdiction covers the states of Maharashtra and Goa and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
• Kolkata High Court has jurisdiction over the state of West Bengal and the Union Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
• Allahabad High Court has jurisdiction over the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh.
• It was established on 17 March 1866, making it the fourth high court to be established in India.

The Correct Answer is G. Durgabai Deshmukh.

• The Central Social Welfare Board was established in 1953 by a Resolution of the Government of India to carry out welfare activities for promoting voluntarism, providing technical and financial assistance to the voluntary organizations for the general welfare of family, women, and children.
• Dr.Durgabai Deshmukh was the founder Chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board.
• In 1969 it was registered under section 25 of the Indian Companies Act, 1956.

• Ms. Aastha Saxena Khatwani (2020) is the present chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board.

Aruna Asaf Ali

• Aruna Asaf Ali was known as the Heroine of the Quit India Movement.
• She belongs to the state of Punjab.
• She served as the first Mayor of Delhi.

Annie Besant

• She is the founder of the Theosophical Society in India.
• In 1898, she was instrumental in setting up of Central Hindu College

Sarojini Naidu

• Sarojini Naiduis is popularly known as ‘Nightingale of India’.
• She was the second woman (After Annie Besant) and the first Indian woman to become congress president.
• She was also the first woman governor of an Indian state ( United Provinces of Agra and Oudh).

The correct answer is Article 323A.

• Article 323A deals with the Administrative Tribunal in India.

• The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIVA to the Constitution. 
• This Part is entitled ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles. 
• Article 323A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323B dealing with tribunals for other matters.

• The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) Prohibition and certiorari are both issued against court or Tribunals exercising judicial or quasi-judicial powers.

• Article 271 in The Constitution Of India 1949 says
  • Surcharge on certain duties and taxes for purposes of the Union Notwithstanding anything in Articles 269 and 270, Parliament may at any time increase any of the duties or taxes referred in those articles.
• Article 290(a) in The Constitution Of India 1949 says
  • In the case of a charge on the Consolidated Fund of India, the court or Commission serves any of the separate needs of a State, or the person has served wholly or in part in connection with the affairs of a State.
• Article 307 of the Constitution of India deals with
  • The Appointment of authority for carrying out the purposes of articles 301 to 304 Important Schedules of the Indian Constitution is as follows:
    • 6th Schedule: Administration of Tribal Areas of North-Eastern States.
    • 7th Schedule: Distribution of power between the Union and the State Government (Union List, State List and Concurrent List).
    • 8th Schedule: Description of 22 languages recognized by the constitution.
    • 9th Schedule: Validation of certain Acts and Regulations.
    • 10th Schedule: Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection (Anti-defection Law introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act). 

The correct answer is Chevrons.

• A Head Constable wears three point-down chevrons on their sleeve or three bars on their epaulets (shoulder piece of decoration).
• The post is equivalent to a Sergeant in police forces in other countries.

• The Indian Councils Act, 1861, by the British government laid the foundation of the Indian Police. It was called Superior Police Services, later known as the Indian Imperial Police.
• Following India's independence in 1947, it was renamed the Indian Police Service(IPS) in 1948.
• The IPS is one of the All India Services, along with the Indian Forest Service and Indian Administrative Service.
• Article 312(2) in part XIV of the Indian Constitution created the Indian Police force following independence.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 Only.

The table below is correctly matched:

There are XXII parts in India Constitution:

• Article 243-U of the Indian Constitution provides for the duration of municipalities.
• The Article 243-U(1) provides that every Municipality unless sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall continue for five years from the date scheduled for its first meeting and no longer; provided that a municipality shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard before its dissolution. Hence option 1 and 2 are correct.
• Article 243-U(2) provides that no amendment of any law for the time being in force shall have the effect of causing dissolution of a Municipality at any level, which is functioning immediately before such amendment, till the expiration of its duration specified in clause (1). Therefore no retrospective laws can be brought to dissolve municipalities. Hence option 4 is not correct.
• Article 243-U(3) provides that an election to constitute a Municipality shall be completed.

1. before the expiry of its duration specified in clause (1)
2. before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution provided that where the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Municipality would have continued is less than six months, it shall not be necessary to hold any election under this clause for constituting the municipality for such period. Hence option 3 is correct.

• Article 243-U(4): a municipality constituted upon the dissolution of a municipality before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Municipality would have continued under clause (1) had it not been so dissolved

Rajya Sabha:

• The Rajya Sabha should consist of not more than 250 members - 238 members representing the States and Union Territories, and 12 members nominated by the President.
• Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
• The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the upper house of the Parliament of India.
• However, one-third of the members retire every second year and are replaced by newly elected members.
• Each member is elected for a term of six years.
• The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members.
• Besides, there is also a panel of "Vice-Chairman" in the Rajya Sabha.
• The senior-most minister, who is a member of Rajya Sabha, is appointed by the Prime Minister as Leader of the House.

• Himachal Pradesh elects 3 members for the term of 6 years and indirectly elected by the state legislators, since the year 1956.

​Thus, Himachal Pradesh has three seats in Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is 14.

• Special Court is provided in section 14.
  • For the purpose of providing for a speedy trial, the State Government shall, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification in the Official Gazette, specify for each district a Court of Session to be a Special Court to try the offences under this Act.

• SC Act to prevent the commission of offences of atrocities against the members of the scheduled castes and the Scheduled Tribes, to provide for special courts for the trial of such offences and for the relief and rehabilitation of the victims of such offences and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto. 
• It was enacted by Parliament in the Fortieth Year of the Republic of India.

The correct answer is Spokesperson of Rajya Sabha before Lok Sabha and President.

• The Vice President is not a spokesperson of Rajya Sabha before Lok Sabha and President, on working as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

• The vice-President of India is the second-highest constitutional post in India after the President.
• Article 63 of the Indian Constitution states that "There shall be a vice president of India."
• The vice president acts as President within the absence of the president thanks to death, resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
• The vice president of India is additionally ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
• When a bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the vice president decides whether it's a financial bill or not.
• If he's of the opinion, a bill introduced within the Rajya Sabha may be a money bill, he would refer the case to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha for deciding it.

• Part V of the Constitution of India under Chapter I (Executive) also discusses the office of the Vice-President of India.
• Articles (63-73) describe the election, removal, post, requirement, etc of the Vice President of India.

• Currently, M. Venkiah Naidu is the Vice-President of India. 
•  Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of independent India, takes charge of the office in 1952.

• List of vice presidents of India: