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If mth term of an A.P. be1/n and nth term be 1/m show that it\'s(mn)th term is 1 |
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Answer» 1/n=a + (m-1)d.....1/m=a+(n-1)d....Solve this two eqn to get d=1/mnAnd put this value in any one of the above eqn to get the value of a which will also equals to 1/mn.*Tmn= a+(mn-1)dPut the value of a and d in this equation.you will get the answer i.e. 1In this way you can prove this.Www.baamaasbeta.blogspot.complz visit once. Support material |
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