Explore topic-wise InterviewSolutions in Current Affairs.

This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

1.

The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken?(a) L/36 for end panels without drops(b) L/32 for end panels without drops(c) 13 cm(d) L/36 for end panels without drops, L/32 for end panels without drops and 13 cm

Answer» The correct answer is (d) L/36 for end panels without drops, L/32 for end panels without drops and 13 cm

Easy explanation: A flat slab is a two-way reinforced concrete slab that usually does not have beams and girders, and the loads are transferred directly to the supporting concrete columns.
2.

Shape of the resonance curve depends upon the?(a) Q-factor(b) Voltage(c) Current(d) Either voltage or current

Answer» Correct choice is (a) Q-factor

The explanation: The shape of the resonance curve depends on the Q factor because of the equation:

Q=Resonance frequency / Bandwidth.                                                                                                            Sharp resonance means high quality factor.
3.

The size of the faeces drop hole in the floor or slab should not be larger than ____________(a) 5m(b) 25 cm(c) 45 cm(d) 250 mm

Answer» Right answer is (b) 25 cm

To explain: The user positions themself over the small drop hole during use. The size of the feces drop hole in the floor or slab should not be larger than 25 centimeters (9.8 inches) to prevent children falling in. Light should be prevented from entering the pit to reduce access by flies. This requires the use of a lid to cover the hole in the floor when not in use. However, in practice, such a lid is not commonly used as it is easy to lose it or for the lid to get very filthy.
4.

Write a short note on cold-storage.

Answer»

The essential components of a cold storage plant are:- 

Compressor, condenser, expansion device and evaporator for small cold storages the rooms are cooled by air. The warm air from the room is drawn in at the bottom, it passes over the coils of evaporator and chilled air is blown out in the room through the directing louvers. Such units use direct refrigerant in their cooling coils or brine is circulated in which case secondary coils are to be provided. For large cold storages the rooms are cooled by brine which is cooled at control point and pumped through pipes to the respective rooms.

5.

Name the equipment and devices used in the air conditioning plants.

Answer»

1.Commpressor 

2.Condesing Unit 

3.Evporative Unit 

4. Control Unit 

5.Supply Fan 

6. Humidifier 

7.Boiler 

8. Chiller 

9.Filters 

10. Ducts, Supply and Return

6.

What is the function of relay in motors and how many types of relays are there?

Answer»

Relay is an electrical operated switch used to disconnect the starting winding or starting capacitor from the circuit when the motor reaches at its rated speed. 

Types of Relays. 

1. Current coil or amperage type relay. 

2. Potential or voltage type relay. 

3. Hot wire relay.

7.

Write about oil pressure failure safety switch.

Answer»

It is a switch which disconnects the electric supply when the oil pressure goes below normal in the compressor. It consist two bellows one bellow is connected to the low pressure side and other to the oil pump where it build the oil pressure. It is connected in series circuit of electric motor.

8.

Consider the following statements : 1. Practically all common refrigerants have approximately the same COP and power requirement. 2. Ammonia mixes freely with lubricating oil and this helps lubrication of compressors.3. Dielectric strength of refrigerants is an important property in hermetrically sealed compressor units. 4. Leakage of ammonia can be detected by halide torch method. Of these statements : (a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct.

Answer»

(d) 1 and 3 are correct.

9.

What are the desirable properties of ideal refrigerants?

Answer»

Desirable properties of ideal refrigerant. 

1. It should be non poisonous. 

2. It should be non-explosive. 

3. It should be non-flammable. 

4. It should be non corrosive to metal.

10.

How the leaks of halocarbon refrigerants detected explain.

Answer»

Leaks of Freon/halocarbon refrigerants are detected with a halide (alcohol) torch. If the intake tube of the halide torch is brought near the leaking joint, then the leaking gas will enter into intake tube of the torch and gives a green hue. Which is a sure indication of a gas leak.

11.

Which breaks dormancy of potato tuber ? (1) Gibberellin (2) IAA (3) ABA (4) Zeatin

Answer»

(1) Gibberellin

12.

Pit-fall tray contains a container such as a _______a. Jar. b. Tube c. Funnel d. None 

Answer»

Pit-fall tray contains a container such as a Jar.

13.

In Berles’s funnel, the top of the funnel extends into a jar of _________% alcohol. a. 60 % b. 70% c. 80% d. None

Answer»

In Berles’s funnel, the top of the funnel extends into a jar of 70% alcohol.

14.

Alcohol responds to change in temperature in a. 7-8 seconds b. 10-20 seconds c. 1-2 seconds. 

Answer»

 Alcohol responds to change in temperature in 7-8 seconds.

15.

Select correct statement(s) :A. hydrophilic colloid is a colloid in which there is a strong attraction between the dispersed phase and waterB. hydrophobic colloid is a colloid in which there is a lack of attraction between the dispersed phase and waterC. hydrophobic sols are often formed when a solid crystallises rapidly from a chemical reaction or a supersaturated solutionD. all of the above

Answer» Correct Answer - D
It is factual
16.

Ethyl alcohol have LD50 value (mg/kg) a. 1 b. 5 c. 1,000 d. 10,000

Answer»

Ethyl alcohol have LD50 value (mg/kg) 10,000.

17.

Which of the following is a green-house gas?1. Hydrogen2. Methane3. Oxygen4. Nitrogen

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Methane

The correct answer is Methane.

  • Green-House Gas
    • Greenhouse gases are those that absorb and emit infrared radiation in the wavelength range emitted by Earth.
    • Greenhouse gases trap heat and make the planet warmer and are the reason for global warming.
    • Carbon Dioxide, Nitrous Oxide, Methane, and Ozone are trace gases that account for almost 0.1% of Earth's atmosphere and have an appreciable greenhouse effect.
  • Methane (CH4)
    • It is the simplest hydrocarbon consisting of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms.
    • It is a powerful greenhouse gas.
    • Major natural sources of methane include emissions from wetlands, and oceans and from the digestive processes of termites.
    • Methane is more than 25 times as potent as carbon dioxide at trapping heat in the atmosphere.


  • Hydrogen
    • It has atomic number 1 and mass number 1.
    • It has the simplest atomic structure among all the elements around us in nature.
    • It is the first element in the periodic table.
    • It resembles alkali metals as well as halogens in some properties.
  • Oxygen
    • Its atomic number is 8 and its mass number is 16.
    • It is the most abundant of all the elements on earth.
    • It is paramagnetic in nature.
    • Ozone(O3) is an allotropic form of oxygen.
  • Nitrogen
    • Its atomic number is 7 and its mass number is 14.
    • It is inert at room temperature.
    • Nitrogen comprises 78% by volume of the atmosphere.​
18.

The fuel used in nuclear power plant is:1. Gasoline2. Gold3. Uranium4. Radium

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 3 : Uranium

The correct answer is Uranium.

  • Nuclear Power Plant
    • It is a type of power plant that uses the process of nuclear fission in order to generate electricity.
    • They do this by using nuclear reactors in combination with the Rankine cycle, where the heat generated by the reactor converts water into steam, which spins a turbine and a generator.
  • Uranium
    • It is a silvery-white element.
    • Its atomic number is 92 and its mass number is 238.
    • This element was discovered by German Chemist MH Klaproth.
    • It is also called the metal of hope.
    • It does not occur in the free state and is extracted from pitch blended ore.
    • It is used in the atomic reactor as nuclear fuel.


  • Gasoline
    • It is a derivative product of crude oil or petroleum.
    • It is derived during the fractional distillation process and has a translucent liquid form.
    • It is not used in its crude form. Different additives are added like ethanol to use as fuel for passenger vehicles.
  • Gold
    • It is a soft, bright yellow-colored lustrous metal.
    • Its atomic number is 79 and its mass number is 197.
    • It occurs in nature in free element form or in alluvial deposits or in the form of ores.
    • It is used in making ornaments, coins, electroplating, and in the sugar and pharmaceutical industries.
  • Radium
    • Radium is a silvery-white metal that does not occur free in nature.
    • It is a chemical element with the symbol Ra and atomic number 83.
    • It was first discovered in 1898 by Pierre Curie and Marie Curie.
    • Radium's main practical use has been in the medicine producing radon gas from radium chloride to be used in radiotherapy for cancer.
19.

What is primary colours?1. Colour of the rainbow2. Colour found in nature3. Colour in the spectrum of white light4. Colours made by flowers5. Colours that cannot be produced by mixing other colors

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 5 : Colours that cannot be produced by mixing other colors

The correct answer is Colours that cannot be produced by mixing other colors.

  • Primary Colours-
    • Colors that cannot be produced by mixing other colors are termed primary colors or "elemental" colors.
    • The three primary colors are red, yellow, and blue because they are the only colors that cannot be made by mixing any other colors.
    • They can be combined to create additional colors which are called secondary colors. 

  • Three Primary Colors (Ps): RedYellowBlue.
  • Three Secondary Colors (S'): Orange, Green, Violet.
  • Six Tertiary Colors (Ts): Red-Orange, Yellow-Orange, Yellow-GreenBlue-GreenBlue-Violet, Red-Violet, which are formed by mixing a primary with a secondary.
20.

Check whether f(z) = ex+iy is analytic or not.

Answer»

f(z) = ex+iy = ex.eiy

= ex(cos y + i sin y)     (∵ eiy =  cos y + i sin y)

= ex cos y + i ex sin y

By comparing with f(z) = u(x, y) + i v(x, y), we get

u(x, y) = ex cos y and

v(x, y) = ex sin y

\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}\) = ex cos y which is continuous on TR2

\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\) = - ex sin y which is continuous on TR2

\(\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}\) = ex sin y which is continuous on TR2

\(\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}\) = ex cos y which is continuous on TR2

By observation, we obtain

\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}\) and \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}= -\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}\)\(\)

Hence, function f satisfies the cauchy-riemann equations.

Since, \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}\),  \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\)\(\frac{\partial v}{\partial x}\) and \(\frac{\partial v}{\partial y}\) are continuous on TR2 and satisfy the cauchy-riemann equations.

\(\therefore\) f(z) = ex+iy is an analytical function.

21.

Gold number of haemoglobin is 0.03. Hence 100 ml of gold sol will require haemoglobin so that gold is not coagulated by 10 ml of 10% NaCl solutionA. 0.03 mgB. 30 mgC. 0.30 mgD. 3mg

Answer» Correct Answer - C
Gold number=0.03
Gold sol volume =100ml
Let the amount of hemoglobin required is x mg
Since the gold number is the amount in miligrams required to prevent the coagulation of 10 ml of gold sol by 1 ml of 10% NaCl
`therefore(x)/(100)xx10=` gold number
`thereforex=0.30mg`
22.

Which of the following is not an example of heterogeneous catalytic reaction ? (1) Ostwald's process (2) Haber's process (3) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (4) Combustion of coal

Answer»

Correct option: (4) Combustion of coal

23.

Branch of toxicology that is hybrid of analytic chemistry and fundamental toxicological principles a. Chemical toxicology b. Forensic toxicology c. Environmental toxicology d. None 

Answer»

b. Forensic toxicology 

24.

Gold number of haemoglobin is 0.03. Hence 100 ml of gold sol will require haemoglobin so that gold is not coagulated by 10 ml of 10% NaCl solutionA. 0.03 mgB. 30 mgC. 0.30 mgD. 3 mg

Answer» Correct Answer - C
0.03=weight of Hb in mg x 10/100, weight of Hb in mg=0.30
25.

In the adult, anuria refers to urine output less than1. 50 ml per day2. 100 ml per day3. 150 ml per day4. 200 ml per day

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : 100 ml per day

Explanation:

Anuria is non-passage of urine, in practice is defined as the passage of less than 100 ml of urine in a day.

Anuria is mostly caused by a failure in the function of kidneys, but it can also result from problems in the heart.

Some of the causes of anuria include:

  • Diabetes: When a person’s blood sugar is consistently high, such as with uncontrolled diabetes, it can result in diabetic ketoacidosis, and damage to the small blood vessels in the kidneys. This can cause acute renal failure and poor or absent urine production.
  • Kidney stones: These stones can cause blockages in the kidneys or ureters, the tubes that transport urine from the kidneys to the urethra where it is passed out of the body. These blockages mean the urine is unable to exit the body.
  • Kidney failure: Acute kidney failure occurs when the kidneys stop functioning and are unable to filter urine anymore.
  • High blood pressure: Also known as hypertension, high blood pressure can damage the blood vessels in the kidneys over time. Without treatment, high blood pressure can lead to permanent kidney damage and anuria.
  • Tumours: A growth on or near the kidney can cause a blockage and keep urine from passing out of the body.
  • Heart failure: When a person has heart failure the heart cannot pump enough blood around the body. Processes in the body kick in if there is not enough fluid in the blood vessels. One of these is the kidneys ceasing to make urine to hold on to extra fluid.
26.

Haemoglobin and gold sol are examples of (1) Positively charged sols (2) Negatively charged sols (3) Negatively and positively charged sols, respectively (4) Positively and negatively charged sols, respectively

Answer»

The correct option is (4) Positively and negatively charged sols, respectively.

27.

The parameters assessed using the Glasgow coma scale are1. Eye-opening response, best verbal response, best motor response2. Eye response, best verbal response, best stimuli response3. Eye response, best response, best motor response4. None of these

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 1 : Eye-opening response, best verbal response, best motor response

Explanation:

Glasgow Coma Scale

  • The Glasgow Coma Scale provides a practical method for assessment of impairment of conscious level in response to defined stimuli.
  • The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to objectively describe the extent of impaired consciousness in all types of acute medical and trauma patients.
  • The scale assesses patients according to three aspects of responsiveness: eye-opening, verbal, and motor responses. Reporting each of these separately provides a clear, communicable picture of a patient’s state.
28.

Proteoglycans are made up of proteins and(A) Glucosamine (B) Mannosamine (C) Sialic acid (D) Mucopolysaccharides

Answer»

 (D) Mucopolysaccharides

29.

The nucleotide binding site of G-proteins is present on their (A) α-Subunit (B) β-Subunit α- and β- (C) γ-Subunit (D) δ-Subunit

Answer»

(C) γ-Subunit

30.

Phospholipase C is activated by (A) Gs proteins (B) Gi proteins (C) Gq proteins (D) G12 proteins

Answer»

(C) Gq proteins

31.

STAT proteins are (A) Thermostat proteins of brain (B) Glucostat proteins of hepatocyte cell membrane (C) Short term activators of translation (D) Signal transduction and activators of transcription

Answer»

(D) Signal transduction and activators of transcription

32.

Activated phospholipase C acts on (A) Phosphatidyl inositol-4, 5-biphosphate (B) Inositol-1, 4, 5-triphosphate (C) Protein kinase C (D) Pl-3 kinase

Answer»

(A) Phosphatidyl inositol-4, 5-biphosphate

33.

Inositol triphosphate is the second messenger for (A) Gastrin (B) Cholecystokinin (C) Oxytocin (D) All of these

Answer»

(D) All of these

34.

Actin, Troponin, Biceps, Muscles of blood vessels, Muscles of heart, Myosin, Muscles of reproductive tract, Tropomyosin, Muscles of Alimentary canal, Triceps. Rearrange the terms in four columns on the basis of their similarity and give appropriate headings for each columns.

Answer»
Muscle proteinsSkeletal MuscleSmooth MuscleCardiac Muscle
Actin
Troponin
Myosin
Tropomyosin
Biceps
Triceps
Muscles of blood vessel 
Muscles of Reproductive tract 
 Muscles of Alimentary canal
Muscles of heart
35.

In a food chain herbivores are (a) Primary producers (b) Primary consumers (c) Secondary consumers (d) Decomposers 

Answer»

In a food chain herbivores are  Primary consumers.

36.

Which of the following is located at the trans end of the Golgi stack?(a) ascorbic acid(b) methanoic acid(c) sialyl-transferase(d) dehydrogenase

Answer» The correct choice is (c) sialyl-transferase

The explanation is: The enzyme sialyl-transferase is located at the trans face of the Golgi stack and it places sialic acid at the terminal position of the glycoprotein chains.
37.

A linear DNA fragment and a plasmid has three restriction sites for EcoRI. How many fragments will be produced from linear DNA and plasmid respectively?

Answer»

If a linear DNA fragment and a plasmid, each has three recognition sites for EcoRI, then total of four fragments are produced from linear DNA fragment and  three from a circular plasmid. Restriction sites are the sites present on DNA molecule where restriction endonucleases like EcoRI cut the DNA.

38.

A body is tied up a string of length l and rotated in vertical circle at minimum speed. When it reaches at highest point string breaks and body moves on a parabolic path in presence of gravity according to fig. in the plane of point A, value of horizontal range AC will be A. `x = l`B. `x = 2l`C. `x = sqrt(2l)`D. `x = 2sqrt(2l)`

Answer» Correct Answer - B
`V_(B) = sqrt(gl)`
`x = V_(B) sqrt((2 xx 2l)/(g)) = x = 2l`.
39.

1 litre of water at 40°C  is mixed with 1 litre of water at 60°C. What will be the approximate temperature of water after a certain time?1. 100°C 2. Between 40°C and 60°C3. More than 60°C but less than 100°C4. 20°C

Answer» Correct Answer - Option 2 : Between 40°C and 60°C

Given

One liter of water at 40°C is mixed with one liter of water at 60°C

Calculation 

One liter of water at 40°C is mixed with one liter of water at 60°C

Volume of both are same

Heat will transfer from higher temperature water to lower temperature water

Means from 60°C to 40°C 

Hence 60°C temperature will decrease because of heat transferred to 40°C 

And 40°C temperature will increase 

⇒ Temperature will be between 40°C and 60°C 

One liter of water at 40°C is mixed with one liter of water at 60°C.

∴ The temperature of the mixture will be between 40°C and 60°C.

40.

Calculate the internal energy change in each of the following cases : (i) A system absorbs 15 kJ of heat and does 5 kJ of work. (ii) 5 kJ of work is done on the system and 15 kJ of heat is given out by the system.

Answer»

(i) Here, q = +15 kJ

w = – 5 kJ

∴ According to first law of thermodynamic

ΔU = q + w = 15 + (–5) = 10 kJ 

Thus, internal energy of the system increases by 10 kJ

(ii) Here, w = + 5 kJ

q = – 5 kJ

∴ According to first law of thermodynamics,

ΔU = q + w = – 15 + (+ 5) = – 10 kJ 

Thus, the internal energy of the system decreases by 10 kJ.

41.

A mass M is split into two parts m and (M-m) which are then separated by certain distance. Find ratio (m/M) to maximise the gravitational force `F=(Gm(M-m))/(r^(2))` between the parts. Here G = gravitational constant and r is the distance between m and (M-m).

Answer» `F=(Gm(M-m))/(r^(2)=(G)/(r^(2))(mM-m^(2))`
For F to be maximum `(dF)/(dm)=0`
`(d)/(dm)[(G)/(r^(2))(mM-m^(2)]=0`
` rArr "" M-2m=0`
`(m)/(M)=(1)/(2)`
42.

Evaluate `int^6_3(2x^2+3x+5)dx`.

Answer» `int(2x^2+3x+5)dx`
` =int 2x^2dx+int 3xx+int 5 dx`
`=2int x^2dx+3intx dx+5 int x^0dx`
` 2x^3/3+3x^2/2+tx^1/1`
` =2/3 x^3+3/2 x^2+5x`
Thus, `int^6_3(2x^2+3x+5)dx=[2/3x^3+3/2x^2+5x]^6_3`
`2/3(216-27)+3/2(36-9)+5(6-3)`
`=126+40.5+15=18.15`.
43.

Find `dy/dx` if `y=e^x sin x`

Answer» `y=e^x sin x`
So, `dy/dx=d/x (e^x sinx)=e^x d/dx (sinx)+sinx d/dx(e^x)`
`=e^x cosx+e^x sinx=e^x(cosx+sinx)`.
44.

The height reached in time t by a particle thrown upward with a speed u is given by `h=ut-(1)/(2) "gt"^(2)` where g is acceleration due to gravity. Find the time taken in reaching the maximum height.

Answer» Here h=f(t).
Thus h will be maximum when `(dh)/(dt)=0`
We have `h=ut- (1)/(2) "gt"^(2)`
or `(dh)/(dt)=u-(1)/(2)g(2t)=u-"gt"`
for maximum h, `(dh)/(dt)=0`
`rArr " " u-"gt"=0`
`t=(u)/(g)`
45.

The height reached in time t by a particle thrown upwared with a speed u is given by `h=ut-1/2 gt^2`where g=9.8 m/s^2 is a constant.Find the timetakenin raching the maximum height.

Answer» The height h is a function of tiem.Thus, h will be maximum when `(dh)/(dt)=0` We have,
`h=ut-1/2 gt^2`
or, `(dh)/(dt)=d/(dt) (ut)-d/dt(1/2 gt^2)`
`=u(dt)/(dt)-/2g d/(dt) (t^2)`
`= u-1/2 g(2g)=u-gt.` For maximum h,
`(dh)/(dt)=0`
or, `u-gt=0 or, t=u/g`
46.

Assertion The total kinetic energy of a rolling solid sphere is the sum of translational and rotationla kinetic energies . Reason For all solid bodies. Totla kinetic energy is always twice of translational kinetic energy.A. Both assertion and reson are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertionB. Both assetion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertionC. Assertion is true but reason is falseD. Both assetion and reason are flase

Answer» Correct Answer - C
47.

Assertion It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides . Reason In the upwared direction , the heat propagate through convection.A. Both assertion and reson are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertionB. Both assetion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertionC. Assertion is true but reason is falseD. Both assetion and reason are flase

Answer» Correct Answer - B
48.

Assertion When `theta = 45^(@) or 135^(@)`, the valueof R remains the same, only the sign changes. Reason R= `(u^(2)sin2theta)/(g)`A. Both assertion and reson are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertionB. Both assetion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertionC. Assertion is true but reason is falseD. Both assetion and reason are flase

Answer» Correct Answer - A
49.

Two 20g flatworms climb over a veruy thin walll, 10 cm high.One of the wrom is 20 cm long, the other is wider and only 10 cm long. Which of the following statement is correct reagarding them?A. 20 cm wormk has done more work against gravityB. 10 cm worm has done more work against gravityC. Both worms have done equal work against gravityD. ratio of work donw by both the worms is 4:5

Answer» Correct Answer - B
50.

Assertion In adiabatic expansion the product of p and V always decreses Reason In adiabatic expansion process, wrok is done by the gas at the cost of internal energy of gas.A. Both assertion and reson are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertionB. Both assetion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertionC. Assertion is true but reason is falseD. Both assetion and reason are flase

Answer» Correct Answer - B