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The correct answer is July 22, 1947.

• On July 22 1947, the Indian Tricolour was adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
• It served as the national flag of the Dominion of India between 15 August 1947 and 26 January 1950 and then, as the Republic of India thereafter.
• 22nd July is also celebrated as the Flag Adoption Day.
• In 1921, Venkayya met Gandhi in Vijayawada and presented a rudimentary design of the flag. The flag was consisted of two red and green bands to symbolise Hindus and Muslims.
• However, Gandhi made some changes to it. He added a white band to symbolise peace and a charkha to represent self-reliance on the recommendations of Lala Hansraj.

• The National flag of India is a horizontal tricolour of deep saffron (kesari) at the top, white in the middle and dark green at the bottom in equal proportion.
• The ratio of width of the flag to its length is two to three. In the centre of the white band is a navy blue wheel which represents the chakra.
• Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.

The Correct answer is Article 351.

• The Constitution imposes a duty upon the Centre to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language under Article 351 so that it may become the lingua franca of the composite culture of India. Further, the Centre is directed to secure the enrichment of Hindi by assimilating the forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and in other languages specified in the Eighth Schedule and by drawing its vocabulary, primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages.
• At present, the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution specifies 22 languages (originally 14 languages). These are Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili (Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.
• Sindhi was added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003.
• In terms of the constitutional provisions, there are two objectives behind the specification of the above regional languages in the Eighth Schedule:

1. the members of these languages are to be given representation in the Official Language Commission; and
2. the forms, style and expression of these languages are to be used for the enrichment of the Hindi language.

The correct answer is 6^th.

• The Sixth Schedule consists of provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, according to Article 244 of the Indian Constitution. 
• Passed by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, it seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC).
  • ADCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.
  • The governors of these states are empowered to reorganize the boundaries of the tribal areas.
• In simpler terms, she or he can choose to include or exclude any area, increase or decrease the boundaries and unite two or more autonomous districts into one.
• They can also alter or change the names of autonomous regions without separate legislation.

• Fourth Schedule
  • It contains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha.
• Eighth Schedule: It deals with the 22 official languages recognized by the Indian Constitution.
  • Assamese
  • Bengali
  • Bodo
  • Dogri (Dongri)
  • Gujarati
  • Hindi
  • Kannada
  • Kashmiri
  • Konkani
  • Mathili (Maithili)
  • Malayalam
  • Manipuri
  • Marathi
  • Nepali
  • Oriya
  • Punjabi
  • Sanskrit
  • Santhali
  • Sindhi
  • Tamil
  • Telugu
  • Urdu
• ​Tenth Schedule:
  • ​It contains provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.
  • This schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, also known as Anti-defection Law

The correct answer is ICS.

• There are three categories of All India Civil Services:
  • Indian Administrative Service (IAS)
  • Indian Police Service (IPS)
  • Indian Forest Service (IFoS)

• Lord Cornwallis is considered as the "Father of Indian Civil Services‟.
• 1853 Act introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.
• The covenanted civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also.
• Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.

The correct answer is Article 61.

• Article 61 of the Constitution of India provides the procedure for the impeachment of the President.

• Impeachment of the President:
  • Under Article 61, the President can be impeached from office for “violation of the Constitution”.
  • The impeachment can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
  • The resolution must be moved after at least 14 days notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4 of total members of the House and passed by two-thirds of the total membership.

• Article 78 deals with the duty of the Prime Minister to:
  • To communicate to the President, for all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
  • To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the
    President may call for.
• Article 73 states that 
  • The executive power of the Union shall extend to the matters with respect to which Parliament has the power to make laws.
• Article 88 states that
  • Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote.

The correct answer is Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta Committee, Hanumantha Rao Committee, ​G. V. K. Rao Committee.

• Panchayati Raj means Rural local self-governance.
• It derives constitutional validity from the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 which added Part-IX and Schedule 11th in our Indian Constitution. 
• The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act added Part IXA and Schedule 12 in the Indian Constitution. 
• Article 40 calls for local self-government with necessary powers.

The development of Local Self Government:

1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957
2. Ashok Mehta Committee, 1977
3. Hanumantha Rao Committee, 1983
4. G. V. K. Rao Committee, 1985
5. L. M. Singhvi Committee, 1986

The correct answer is None of the above.

• There are three ways in which the Constitution can be amended:-
  • Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament
  • Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament
  • Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures.

• Amendment by a simple majority-
  • Admission or establishment of new states, Formation of new states, Rules of procedure in Parliament, Salaries and Allowances, Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court, Elections to Parliament and state legislatures, etc are covered under this.
• Amendment by the special majority-
  • The special majority- a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
  • The provisions which can be amended by this way include (i) Fundamental Rights; (ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and (iii) All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.
• Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures-
  • Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by this.
  • For instance, the election of the president, distribution of legislative powers between union and states, any of the lists in the seventh schedule, etc.
• The provisions mentioned in the question statement are related to Amendment by simple majority. Hence, No statement is correct.

The correct answer is 4 times.

• President’s Rule refers to the suspension of a state government and the imposition of direct rule of the Centre.
• The central government takes direct control of the state in question and the Governor becomes its constitutional head. 

• Under Article 365, the President's Rule is imposed when a state government is unable to function according to Constitutional provisions. 

The correct answer is Option 2.

• It was constituted on 18, January 1999 by the notification issued by the Government of Rajasthan. Hence statement A is correct.
• The Commission became functional in March 2000. Hence statement B is correct.
• Rajasthan Human Rights Commission is having one chairperson and 2 members in accordance with the provision of the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2006. Hence the statement C is incorrect.
• One of its former Chairman's has retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. Hence the statement D is correct.

• Rajasthan State Human Rights Commission
  • The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of not only the National Human Rights Commission but also a State Human Rights Commission at the state level.
  • A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights related to subjects covered under state list (List II) and concurrent list (List III) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
  • The State Government of Rajasthan issued a Notification on January 18, 1999, for the constitution of the State Commission in accordance with the provisions of The Protection of Human Rights Act,1993.
• Composition of the State Human Rights Commission:
  • The State Human Rights Commission is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and two members.
  • The chairperson should be a retired Chief Justice of a High Court.
  • Other members should be:
    • Serving or retired judge of a High Court or a District Judge in the state with a minimum
    • Of seven years of experience as District Judge
    • A person of knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights.
• The chairperson and members are appointed by the Governor on the recommendations of a committee consisting of:
  • The chief minister as its head,
  • The speaker of the Legislative Assembly,
  • The state home minister and
  • The leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly.
  • In the case of a state having a Legislative Council, the chairman of the Council and the leader of the opposition in the Council would also be the members of the committee.
  • A sitting judge of a High Court or a sitting District Judge can be appointed only after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state.

The correct answer is NITI Aayog.

• The National Institution for Transforming India was set up on 1 January 2015 as a successor of the Planning Commission.
• Planning Commission of India was an organization in the Government of India, which formulated India’s Five-Year Plans, among other functions.
• The planning commission was charged with the service of the opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.
• The Planning Commission was reporting directly to the Prime Minister of India.
  • It was established on 15 March 1950, with Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as the chairman. 
• The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution of the Government of India in March 1950.
• The prime objectives of the Government were to propel a rapid increase in the living standard of Indians by the productive exploitation of the country’s resources, raising production and securing opportunities for everyone for employment in the service of society. 

• Composition of Planning Commission :
  • The Prime Minister was the Chairman of the Planning Commission, which used to work under the overall guidance of the National Development Council.
  • The Deputy Chairman and the full-time members of the Commission, as a composite body, provided advice and guidance to the subject Divisions for the formulation of Five Year Plans, Annual Plans, State Plans, Monitoring Plan Programmes, Projects, and Schemes.
• The first Five-year Plan was launched in 1951 and subsequent Five-year plans were formulated till 1965 when a gap occurred due to the war with Pakistan.
• Two successive years of drought, devaluation of the currency, a general rise in prices, and erosion of resources disrupted the planning process and after three Annual Plans between 1966 and 1969, the fourth Five-year plan was started in 1969.
• The Eighth Plan could not take off in 1990 due to the fast-changing political situation at the Centre and the years 1990-91 and 1991-92 were treated as Annual Plans.
• The Eighth Plan was finally launched in 1992 after the initiation of structural adjustment policies.

The correct answer is Fast Track Court.

• The government of India has formed National Green Tribunal (NGT) during the year 2010.
  • NGT is a 'quasi-judicial' body that exclusively deals with environment-related civil litigations.
  • These were the National Environment Tribunal Act, of 1995 (META) and the National Environment Appellate Authority Act, of 1997 (NEAA).

• The NGT is a specialized forum for effective and speedy disposal of cases pertaining to environmental protection and conservation of forests.
• Most conservationists would have heard of the National Green Tribunal (NGT), and some may have already filed applications before it.
• While tribunals are formed to deal with specific matters, courts deal with all types of cases.
• The tribunal can be a party to the dispute, whereas a court cannot be a party to the dispute.
• A court is impartial in the sense that it acts as an arbitrator between the defendant and prosecutor.

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

• The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9th December 1946. 
• The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The meeting was attended by only 211 members. 
• Dr Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the interim President of the assembly following the French practice of electing the oldest member as president. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Dr Rajendra Prasad and H C Mukherjee were elected as the President and Vice-President of the Assembly respectively on 11th December 1946. 
• Sir BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor to the Assembly. 
• On December 13th, 1946 Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic objective resolution in the Assembly which laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

List of Important Committees and their Chairperson:

The correct answer is Daroh.

• The PTC is located in tehsil Palampur of District Kangra at a distance of 18 KMs from Palampur on Palampur-Sujanpur-Hamirpur-Shimla State Highway.
• The Campus of the PTC has been rechristened as Darongarh (Daroh) after the legendry Rishi Guru Drona.
• Who taught the art of warfare to the Kauravas and the Pandavas.
•  the birth of Police Training College, at Drongarh (Daroh), in the lap of the mighty Dhauladhar Ranges, on 25.07.1995.
• The PTC is equipped to train all the ranks of HP Police, right from the Constabulary to the Gazetted Officers of the rank of DSP.​

The correct answer is He has been given special responsibility under Article 371 (2).

• He has been given special responsibility under Article 371 (2). Hence option 3 is correct.
• He can nominate one-sixth of the total members to the Legislative council. Hence option 1 is not true.
• Parliament has passed the Constitution (126th Amendment) Bill doing away with the provision for the nomination of Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and some state Assemblies. Hence option 2 is not true.
• He can reserve the bill for the consideration of the President, dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31 A of the Constitution. Hence option 4 is not true.

• Article 371(2) 
  • It was inserted in the Constitution by the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 to ensure full integration of the people of Vidarbha and Marathwada areas with the areas of the erstwhile State of Bombay.
  • It was contemplated that in case of inequitable development of these areas, the Governor could be given special responsibility through a Presidential Order for: -
    • the establishment of separate Development Boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra or, as the case may be, Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat;
    • the equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas, subject to the requirements of the State as a whole.
    • equitable arrangement to provide adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training, and adequate opportunities for employment in services under the control of the State Government.

The correct sequence is 4, 1, 2, 3.

• An Assistant Superintendent of Police (ASP) is a probationary rank in the Indian Police Force.
  • All Police officers start their career as an ASP.
• The Superintendent of Police (SP) is also known as Deputy Commissioner of Police (DCP).
  • The SP heads the police force of a district. 
  • He/she is responsible for maintaining the law and order in the district.
• The Inspector-General of Police (IGP) post is the third-highest rank in the Indian Police Force.
  • In many countries, it is the most senior officer of the entire national police force.
• Director-General of Police (DGP) is a high ranking police officer.
  • He/she is called State Police Chief.
  • He/she is appointed by the Cabinet from the Indian Police Service.

• The Indian Councils Act, 1861, by the British government laid the foundation of the Indian Police. It was called Superior Police Services, later known as the Indian Imperial Police.
• Following India's independence in 1947, it was renamed the Indian Police Service(IPS) in 1948.
• The IPS is one of the All India Services, along with the Indian Forest Service and Indian Administrative Service.
• Article 312(2) in part XIV of the Indian Constitution created the Indian Police force following independence.

The correct answer is ADGP.

• The Additional Director General of Police (ADGP) is a three rank position in the Indian Police force. 
• It is considered junior to the Director General of Police (DGP) .
• The national emblem over a crossed sword and baton is the insignia of an ADGP.
• ADGP ranked officers wear Gorget patches on their collar, which have an oak leaf pattern stitched on their collars. 

• The Indian Councils Act, 1861, by the British government laid the foundation of the Indian Police. It was called Superior Police Services, later known as the Indian Imperial Police.
• Following India's independence in 1947, it was renamed as the the Indian Police Service(IPS) in 1948.
• The IPS is one of the All India Services, along with the Indian Forest Service and Indian Administrative Service.
• Article 312(2) in part XIV of the Indian Constitution created the Indian Police force following independence.

The correct answer is 3.

• The Director General of Police(DGP) is the highest rank of the Indian Police department.
• He is also known as State Police Chief as he/she heads the police force in a particular State or Union Territory. 
• The DGP is appointed by the Cabinet from the Indian Police Service.
• The national emblem over crossed sword and baton is the rank insignia of a DGP. 
• In Delhi, the DGP is known as the Commissioner of Police.

• The Indian Councils Act, 1861, by the British government laid the foundation of the Indian Police. It was called Superior Police Services, later known as the Indian Imperial Police.
• Following India's independence in 1947, it was renamed as the the Indian Police Service(IPS) in 1948.
• The IPS is one of the All India Services, along with the Indian Forest Service and Indian Administrative Service.
• Article 312(2) in part XIV of the Indian Constitution created the Indian Police force following independence. 

The correct answer is Checking the body language of the witness.

• The body language of a witness is used when police deal with hostage situations.
• When dealing with a criminal the following steps must be followed:
  • Reading the constitutional rights to the suspect.
  • Making the suspect understand his/her rights and the charges framed against him/her.
  • Making a lawyer available to the suspect.
  • Trying to avoid violence.

The following things are done when police deal with a hostage situation:

1. Not being loud-mouthed.
2. Obeying the captors.
3. Memorizing the physical traits of the people present there on the crime scene.
4. Cooperating with the other captors by not drawing attention to yourself. 

The correct answer is Chennai.

• India's first engine-less speed train 'Train-18' was developed by the 'Chennai Integral Coach Factory'.
• It has been built under the 'Make in India' initiative and had a speed of 180 km/h.
• Chittaranjan Locomotive Works was established in 1950 in Asansol in the state of West Bengal.
• The electric rail engines are made in Chittaranjan.
• Kapurthala Rail Coach Factory was established in 1986, it is the largest and most modern coach manufacturing unit of Indian Railways.

The correct answer is A, B, C.

• A District Magistrate and Collector is an officer who is in charge of a district in India. 

• Major functions of District Magistrate:
  • Maintaining Law and Order of the District.
  • The District Magistrate controls and directs the actions of the police.
  • Deputy Commissioner while executing his role as a District Magistrate is the head of the criminal administration.
  • The District Magistrate has powers over the administration of lock-ups and jails in the district.
• Major functions of District Collector:
  • Conducts Revenue Court.
  • Collection of Excise Duties, Irrigation Dues, Income Tax dues, and arrears.
  • Undertakes Relief and Rehabilitation Works.
  • Arbitrator of land acquisition, collection of land revenue.
  • Maintain accurate land records.
  • Power to issue various statutory certificates such as Nationality, Domicile, Marriage, SC/ST, OBC, Economically Weaker Section (EWS) certificates.
  • The District Collector is the highest Judicial Authority in the District.

The correct answer is R Venkataraman.

• The bill in which the eligibility age for the right to vote was reduced from 21 years to 18 years received assent from then-President Ramaswamy Venkataraman on 28 March 1989.
• Sixty-First Amendment Act, 1989:
  • ​Reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections.
  • Article 326 of the Constitution of India deals with elections to the Houses and to the State Legislative Assemblies on the basis of universal adult suffrage.
  • The article before being amended by the 61st Amendment stated that any citizen of India who is 21 years or above, and who is not disqualified on any other grounds such as non-residence, crime, corrupt or illegal practices, or unsoundness of mind, is eligible to vote at an election.
  • The proposal to reduce the voting age to 18 years was brought about to increase the participation of the youth in the electoral process of the country.
  • The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988 was introduced in the Lok Sabha on 13th December 1988 by the then Water Resources Minister B. Shankaranand.
  • It was debated and passed by the lower house on 15th The Rajya Sabha passed the bill on 20th December.
  • As per law, more than half the state legislatures had to ratify the bill and this was duly obtained. Only five states, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Nagaland, Tamil Nadu, and Tripura did not ratify.
  • The bill received the presidential assent on 28th March 1989 when the then President R Venkataraman assented it.
  • Thus, the act came into force on 28th March 1989 and from that day onwards, any citizen who is otherwise qualified could participate in the democratic processes in India from the age of 21 years.

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

• The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The eligibility of members of the Finance Commission is determined by the Parliament of India. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Chairman of Finance Commission submits his report to the President of India. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
• Composition: Chairman and 4 members. 
• ​They make recommendations on
  • net proceeds distribution between union and state.
  • grant-in-aid from CFI (Consolidated Fund of India).
  • Principles and measures needed for augmentation of CFS (Consolidated Fund of State).
  • Resources to panchayats and municipalities.
  • Any other matter referred to the commission by President in the interest of sound finance.
• Procedure and powers are defined by parliament law.

• Current Finance Commission: 15^th
• Chairperson: Nand Kishore Singh

The correct answer is 1956.

• Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• On 1 May 1956, an Enforcement Unit’ was formed, in the Department of Economic Affairs, for handling Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947.
• In the year 1957, this Unit was renamed as Enforcement Directorate’.
• ED enforces the following laws:
  • Foreign Exchange Management Act,1999 (FEMA)
  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)

The correct answer is 143.

• Section143 of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for unlawful assembly.

• Section 143: (Punishment)
  • Whoever is a member of an unlawful assembly, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine, or with both.
  • The offence under this section is cognizable, available, and non-compoundable, and it's triable by any magistrate.

• Section 159: (Affray)
  • ​When two or more persons, by fighting in a public place, disturb the public peace, they are said to “commit an affray”.
• Section 166: (Public servant disobeying the law, with intent to cause injury to any person)
  • Whoever, being a public servant, knowingly diso­beys any direction of the law as to the way in which he is to conduct himself as such public servant, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely that he will, by such disobedience, cause injury to any person, shall be punished with simple imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year, or with fine, or with both.
• Section 135:
  • Abetment of desertion of soldier, sailor, or airman.—Whoever abets the desertion of any officer, soldier, 1[sailor or airman], in the Army, 2[Navy or Air Force] of the 3[Government of India], shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.

The correct answer is 193.

• 193 Section of the Indian Penal Code deals with punishment for false evidence during judicial proceedings.
• Punishment for false evidence
  • Whoever intentionally gives false evidence in any stage of a judicial proceeding, or fabri­cates false evidence for the purpose of being used in any stage of a judicial proceeding, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine, and whoever intentionally gives or fabricates false evidence in any other case, shall be punished with imprisonment of either de­scription for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine. 

• Indian Penal Code
  • The objective of this Act is to provide a general penal code for India.
  • Though not the initial objective, the Act does not repeal the penal laws which were in force at the time of coming into force in India. 
• Enacted by: Imperial Legislative Council
• Enacted: 6 October 1860
• Committee report: First Law Commission
• Commenced: 1 January 1862

The correct answer is The President.

• The Attorney General (AG) of India is a part of the Union Executive. AG is the highest law officer in the country who is appointed by the President of India.
• K.K. Venugopal was appointed the 15^th AG of India in 2017. He succeeded Mukul Rohatgi who was AG from 2014-2017.
• Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of AG of India.

• Rights and Limitations of Attorney General of India:
  • She/He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
  • She/He does not fall in the category of Government servants. She/He is not debarred from private legal practice.
  • Solicitor General of India and Additional Solicitor General of India assist the AG in fulfillment of the official responsibilities.
  • She/He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which she/he may be named a member but without a right to vote.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• In India, the Election Commission is responsible for the conduct of Parliament and State Legislatures elections.
• The Municipal Corporations elections are conducted by the State Election Commission. 
• In India, we have Universal Adult Suffrage which means all adults over the age of 18 years have the Right to Vote without any discrimination. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the 61st Amendment Act, 1989. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Article 324 to 329 gives provisions for the electoral system in our country.

• The commission consists of one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. 
• The President may from time to time fix and the appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall, subject to the provisions of any law made in that behalf by Parliament. 
• When any other Election Commissioner is so appointed the Chief Election Commissioner shall act as the Chairman of the Election Commission.
• They have a fixed tenure of six years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
• The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office by the Parliament only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.

The correct answer is a, b and c.

• The Draft Constitution provided for the direct election of the Governor on the basis of adult suffrage. Hence statement a is correct.
• About the appointment of the Governor, India rejected the American system and accepted the Canadian system. Hence statement b is correct.
• After the 42nd Amendment, ministerial advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the Governor. Hence statement c is correct.

• Borrowed features of the Indian Constitution are as follows:
• Government of India Act of 1935
  • Federal Scheme
  • Office of governor
  • Judiciary
  • Public Service Commissions
  • Emergency provisions
  • Administrative details
• Britain
  • Parliamentary government
  • Rule of Law
  • Legislative procedure
  • Single citizenship
  • Cabinet system
  • Prerogative writs
  • Parliamentary privileges
  • Bicameralism
• Ireland
  • Directive Principles of State Policy
  • The nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of the President
• Unites the States of America
  • Impeachment of the president
  • Functions of president and vice-president
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Judicial review
  • Independence of judiciary
  • The preamble of the constitution
• Canada
  • Federation with a strong Centre
  • Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
  • Appointment of state governors by the Centre
  • Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
• Australia
  • Concurrent List
  • Freedom of trade
  • Commerce and intercourse
  • The joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament
• Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia)
  • Fundamental duties
  • The ideal of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble
• France
  • The ideals of the Republic in the Preamble
  • The ideals of liberty in the Preamble
  • The ideals of equality in the Preamble
  • The ideals of fraternity in the Preamble
• Weimar Constitution of Germany
  • Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
• South African Constitution
  • Procedure for amendment of the Constitution 
  • Election of members of Rajya Sabha
• Japan
  • Concept of “procedure established by Law”

The correct answer is The President submits his resignation to the Vice-President.

• Article 56 of the Indian Constitution makes it clear that the term of the President is five years from the date on which he enters the office.
• His term may be terminated earlier
  •  By a resignation addressed to the Vice-President, or
  •  By removal by impeachment for violation of the constitution.
• Article 61: Procedure for impeachment of the President.
  • When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of the Parliament.

The correct answer is Article 350-B.

•  Article 350-B of the Indian constitution was added by the 7th constitutional amendment.
•  The recommendation was made by the State reorganization commission ( 1953-55).
• The special officer for linguistic minorities is appointed by the president of India.
• The duty of the officer includes investigating all matters related to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Indian constitution.

• The commission was made to provide equal opportunities to the linguistic minorities for inclusive development and national integration.
• It ensures the effective implementation of the plans and schemes related to the group of linguistic minorities.
• The office of the linguistic minorities was created in 1957. 

The correct answer is The Eight Schedule.

• Under 8th schedule of the Constitution of India is found the list of official languages.
• The Eighth Schedule occurs in article 344(1) and 351 of the Constitution of India.
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22 official languages.
• Article 351 of the Constitution of India presented that it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language to develop it so that it may function as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India.
• The 8th schedule does not contain English among the 22 languages.
• The 7th Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies the allocation of powers and functions between Union & States.

The correct answer is Article 50.

• Separation of judiciary from the executive is ensured in article 50 of the constitution.
• The article says “the state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state”.

• Article 45: provides for free and compulsory education to the children of the state.
• The article says “the state shall endeavour to provide, within a period of ten years from the commencement of this constitution, for free and compulsory education of all children until they complete the age of fourteen years”.
• Article 51 is about promoting of international peace and security.
• To foster respect for international law and treaty.
• To maintain just and honourable relation between nations.
• Article 48 is about organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry.

The correct answer is Article 131.

• Recently, the Kerala government filed a civil lawsuit in the Supreme Court (SC) challenging the Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) 2019, under the provisions of Article 131 of the Indian Constitution.

Article-131

• The Supreme Court has Original jurisdiction to decide the disputes arising between different units of the Indian Federation like:
  • Centre and one or more states; or
  • Centre & any state(s) on one side and one or more states on the other; or
  • Two or more states.

Article 368

• Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the power of parliament to amend the constitution and its procedures.

Article 23

• Article 23 deals with the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour. 

Article 17

• Article 17 deals with the abolition of Untouchability.
• "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
• The enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.

The correct answer is Deprivation.

• Among the options, Deprivation is NOT a way for the acquisition of citizenship in India.
• Part II of the Indian constitution deals with the citizenship of India.
• India has been following the concept of single citizenship.
• The idea of single citizenship was adopted from Britain.
• In India, only Parliament can make provisions related to citizenship in India.
• Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act in 1955.

• According to the Citizenship Act 1955, a person can acquire Indian citizenship in five different ways:
  • By Birth
  • By Naturalisation.
  • By Incorporation of territory.
  • By Descend.
  • By Registration.
• The Citizenship Act 1955 provides 3 ways by which a citizen may lose his Indian citizenship:
  • Deprivation.
  • Renunciation.
  • Termination.

The correct answer is 3 only

• It was passed to amend the citizenship act 1955 (and not 1971).
• The Hindus, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, Parsis, or Christians (and not all persecuted minorities like Ahmadiyya in Pakistan) from Pakistan, Afghanistan and Bangladesh won’t be treated as illegal immigrants.
• Those persons from the above group who came to India before December 31, 2014, will be given citizenship.
• Also the period of naturalization reduced from 11 years to 5 years.

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

• The 42nd amendment was particularly seen as a wide-ranging amendment affecting large parts of the Constitution.
• This is why it is known as ‘Mini-Constitution’.
• Major amendments under this:-
  • It changed the description of India from a "sovereign democratic republic" to a "sovereign, socialist secular democratic republic".
  • Made the constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny. 
  • Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
  • Curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
  • Provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service.
• In 1973, after a petition was filed by Kesavananda Bharati, the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot alter the 'basic structure' of the Constitution.
• The 42nd amendment act was also an attempt to override the ruling of the Supreme Court given in the Kesavananda case by curtailing the power of judicial review. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• There are three ways in which the Constitution can be amended:-
  • Amendment by a simple majority of the Parliament
  • Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament
  • Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures.
• Amendment by a simple majority-
  • Admission or establishment of new states, Formation of new states, Rules of procedure in Parliament, Salaries and Allowances, etc are covered under this.
• Amendment by the special majority-
  • The special majority- a majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
  • The provisions which can be amended by this way include (i) Fundamental Rights; (ii) Directive Principles of State Policy; and (iii) All other provisions which are not covered by the first and third categories.
• Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures-
  • Those provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by this.
  • For instance, the election of the president, distribution of legislative powers between union and states, any of the lists in the seventh schedule, etc.

The correct answer is the Directive Principles of State Policy.

• Articles 36-51 of Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). 
• They are borrowed from the constitution of Ireland. 
• DPSP's are non-justiciable and are enforceable in the court of law.
• They act as directives to the government to create any law.
• They act as the ‘instrument of instructions’.

The features of the constitution that are taken from the Australian Constitution in the Indian Constitution are - 

• Concurrent list
• Freedom of trade and commerce
• Commerce and Intercourse
• The joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament
• The language used in the Preamble

The correct answer is ​Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts.

• Article 335: Claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts. 
• It provides that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.

The correct answer is 2 only.

• As per Section 33(7) of the Representation of Peoples act, 1951, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In 1991, Haryana deputy chief minister Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats: Sikar, Rohtak and Ferozepur — as well as the Ghirai assembly seat. He lost them all. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The costs of the by-elections in such cases are borne by the Election Commission Of India. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

• The 73rd Constitution Amendment 1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution titled “The Panchayats”.
• Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls of the village. Hence statement A is correct.
• Since all the persons registered in electoral rolls are members of Gram Sabha, there are no elected representatives.
• Further, Gram Sabha is the only permanent unit in the Panchayati Raj system and not constituted for a particular period.
• Although it serves as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj, yet it is not among the three tiers of the same. The powers and functions of Gram Sabha are fixed by the state legislature by law. Hence statement B is Incorrect.
• Part IX provides for a 3 tier Panchayat system, which would be constituted in every state at the village level, intermediate level and district level. This provision brought uniformity in the Panchayati Raj structure in India.
• However, the states which were having a population below 20 Lakh were given an option to not have the intermediate level.
• All the members of these three levels are elected.
• Further, the chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels are indirectly elected from amongst the elected members.
• But at the village level, the election of the chairperson of Panchayat (Sarpanch) may be direct or indirect as provided by the state in its own Panchayati Raj Act. Hence statement C is correct.

The correct answer is  2 only.

• Article 262(1)- Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley.
• Article 262(2)- Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause (1) Coordination between States.
• Entry 17 of State List deals with water i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments, water storage and water power.
• Entry 56 of Union List empowers the Union Government for the regulation and development of inter-state rivers and river valleys to the extent declared by Parliament to be expedient in the public interest.

•  Enactments relating to inter-state water disputes.
  • The Inter-State Water Disputes Act, 1956
  • The River Boards Act, 1956

MAJOR INTER-STATE WATER DISPUTES

240(1) (c) Puducherry is not the answer.

•  Article 240(1) in the Constitution Of India 1949 with subclauses
  • ​(a) the Andaman and Nicobar Islands;
  • (b) Lakshadweep;
  • (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli;
  • (d) Daman and Diu;
  • (e) Pondicherry
     

​

• The Union, under Article 240 of the Constitution, approved the promulgation of the Daman and Diu Civil Courts (Amendment) Regulation, 2019, and the Dadra and Nagar Haveli (Civil Courts and Miscellaneous Provisions) Amendment Regulation, 2019.

• Article 240(1) in The Constitution Of India 1949
  • The President may make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Union territory of
    • Andaman and Nicobar Islands;
    • Lakshadweep;
    • Dadra and Nagar Haveli;
    • Daman and Diu;
    • Pondicherry;
  • Provided that when anybody is created under Article 239A to function as a Legislature for the Union territories of Pondicherry, the President shall not make any regulation for the peace, progress and good government of that Union territory with effect from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Legislature.
  • Provided further that whenever the body functioning as a Legislature for the Union territory of Pondicherry is dissolved, or the functioning of that body as such Legislature remains suspended on account of any action taken under any such law as is referred to in clause (1) of Article 239A. 
  • The President may, during the period of such dissolution or suspension, make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of that Union territory.

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Article 262: Inter-State Water Dispute:

1. Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint concerning the use, distribution, or control of the waters of, or in any inter-state river or river valley. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
2. Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint as is referred to in clause(1).

Inter-State Council: Article 263

• Constituted on the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. (for state coordination)
• President constitutes ISC on the ground of Public interest along with deciding the nature of duties to be performed by it and its organization and procedure and charges it with functions:- (Hence statement 2 is not correct.)

1. Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between states.
2. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the states, or the union and one or more of the States have a common interest.
3. Making recommendations upon any such subjects and in particular, recommendations for the better coordination of policy and action concerning those subjects.

The incorrect match is Article 79 - Supreme Court.

• Article- 79:
  • There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.

• Indian Parliament:
  • Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
  • The Indian Parliament comprises of the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People). 
  • The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
  • The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
  • The first general elections under the new Constitution were held during the year 1951-52 and the first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.

The correct answer is Fakhrudin Ali Ahmed.

​ 

• The President of India can proclaim a national emergency under Article 352 of the Indian constitution.
• The President of India can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet.
• Fakhrudin Ali Ahmed was the President of India at the time of emergency in 1975.
• A national emergency can be proclaimed on the grounds of:
  • War.
  • External aggression.
  • Armed rebellion.

• India proclaimed the first national emergency in 1962.
  • The first national emergency was proclaimed by Dr S Radhakrishnan.
  • It was due to Chinese aggression.
  • It was revoked by Zakir Hussain in 1968.
• India proclaimed the second national emergency in 1971.
  • It was the longest national emergency in India.
  • It was proclaimed by V V Giri.
  • It was due to the India- Pak war.
• India proclaimed the third national emergency in 1975.
  • It was the first internal emergency in India.
  • It was proclaimed by Fakhrudin Ali Ahmed.
  • It was due to an internal disturbance.
  • Both the second and third emergencies were revoked by B. D Jetty in 1977.

• R. Venkataraman was the eighth President of India.
  • He is the first president from India to visit China.
  • Ektasthal is the resting place of R. Venkataraman.
• K. R. Narayan was the ninth President of India.
  • He is the first Dalit to become the president of India.
  • Karma Bhoomi is the resting place of K. R. Narayan.
• Mohammad Hidayatullah was the second acting president of India.
  • He is the only person to discharge the functions of president, vice president, and chief justice of India.

The correct answer is Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed.

• Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the President of India during the emergency of 1975-1977.

• Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, President of India Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed proclaim a state of national emergency on 25 June 1975.
• Shah Commission was a commission of inquiry appointed by the Government of India in 1977 to inquire into all the excesses committed in the Indian Emergency (1975 - 77).

• It was headed by Justice J.C. Shah, a former Chief Justice of India.
• In the history of independent India, a state of emergency has been declared thrice.
• The first instance was between 26 October 1962 to 10 January 1968 during the India-China war, when "the security of India" was declared as being "threatened by external aggression".
• The final decision to impose an emergency was proposed by Indira Gandhi, agreed upon by the president of India, and thereafter ratified by the cabinet and the parliament (from July to August 1975), based on the rationale that there were imminent internal and external threats to the Indian state.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 only.

• The independence of a high court is very essential for the effective discharge of the duties assigned to it.
• The Constitution has made the following provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of a high court.
• Mode of Appointment
  • The judges of a high court are appointed by the president (which means the cabinet) in consultation with the members of the judiciary itself (i.e., chief justice of India and the chief justice of the high court). This provision curtails the absolute discretion of the executive as well as ensures that the judicial appointments are not based on any political or practical considerations.
• Security of Tenure
  • The judges of a high court are provided with the security of tenure.
  • They can be removed from office by the president only in the manner and on the grounds mentioned in the Constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • This means that they do not hold their office during the pleasure of the president, though they are appointed by him.
• Ban on Practice after Retirement 
  • The retired permanent judges of a high court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and the other high courts. Hence statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • This ensures that they do not favour any one in the hope of future favour.
• Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed 
  • The jurisdiction and powers of a high court in so far as they are specified in the Constitution cannot be curtailed both by the Parliament and the state legislature. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • But, in other respects, the jurisdiction and powers of a high court can be changed both by the parliament and the state legislature.

• Fixed Service Conditions
  • The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of a high court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. But, they cannot be changed to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency.
  • Thus, the conditions of service of the judges of a high court remain the same during their term of office.
• Expenses Charged on Consolidated Fund
  • The salaries and allowances of the judges, the salaries, allowances and pensions of the staff as well as the administrative expenses of a high court are charged on the consolidated fund of the state.
  • Thus, they are non-votable by the state legislature (though they can be discussed by it). It should be noted here that the pension of a high court judge is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and not the state.
• Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed
  • The Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament or in a state legislature with respect to the conduct of the judges of a high court in the discharge of their duties, except when an impeachment motion is under consideration of the Parliament.
• Power to Punish for its Contempt
  • A high court can punish any person for its contempt. Thus, its actions and decisions cannot be criticised and opposed by anybody. This power is vested in a high court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour.
• Freedom to Appoint its Staff
  • The chief justice of a high court can appoint officers and servants of the high court without any interference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.
• Separation from Executive
  • The Constitution directs the state to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services.
  • This means that the executive authorities should not possess the judicial powers.

The correct answer is Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed.

• Then Indian Prime Minister Indira Gandhi had imposed an emergency, with the help of an order officially issued by the then President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, to control the internal disturbance. 

• The emergency provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Constitution of India, from Article 352 to 360.
• These provisions enable the Central government to meet any abnormal situation effectively.
• The rationality behind the incorporation is to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution.
• The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies:
  • National Emergency
  • Constitutional Emergency
  • Financial Emergency

The correct answer is 1 only.

• The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects:

• Hence, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is the Separation of powers.

• Separation of powers
  • It is the division of the legislative, executive, and judicial functions of government. It minimizes the possibility of arbitrary excesses by the government since the sanction of all three branches is required for the making, executing, and administering of laws.
  • The constitutional demarcation precludes the concentration of excessive power by any branch of the Government.
  • In the liberal approach which is inherent in democracy, all forms of power are rooted in the will of the people. This approach enhances the rule of law as one of the basic foundations of democracy; it affirms the separation of powers as a vehicle for their restraint, and it promotes individuals’ rights and freedoms as a prerequisite for their dignity. Hence, Option 4 is correct. 
  • Separation of powers should be secured between the legislature and executive. Judiciary should be separated from these. Any concentration or combination of these powers can be dangerous for Liberty.
  • The Executive should not exercise the legislative or judicial powers because this may threaten the freedom and liberty of individuals.
  • The Legislative should never exercise the executive or judicial powers as this may lead to arbitrariness and hence, end the liberty.
  • The Judiciary should not exercise the executive or legislative powers because then a judge would behave like a dictator.

• Constitutional Provisions Ensuring Separation Of Power
  • Article 50: 
    • The state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive.
  • Article 121 and 211: 
    • Judicial conduct of a judge of the Supreme Court and the High Courts’ cannot be discussed in the Parliament and the State Legislature.
  • Article 122 and 212: 
    • Validity of proceedings in Parliament and the Legislatures cannot be called into question in any Court.
  • Article 361: 
    • The President or the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office.