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1001.

Identify the salts P and Q from the observations given below:(i) On performing the flame test salt P produces a lilac coloured flame and its solution gives a white precipitate with silver nitrate solution, which is soluble in Ammonium hydroxide solution. (ii) When dilute HCl is added to a salt Q, a brisk effervescence is produced and the gas turns lime water milky.When NH4OH solution is added to the above mixture (after adding dilute HC1), it produces a white precipitate which is soluble in excess NH4OH solution.

Answer»

(i) KCl 

(ii) ZnCO3

1002.

State the inference drawn from the following observations:1. On carrying out the flame test with a salt P a brick red flame was obtained. What is the cation in P? 2. A gas Q turns moist had acetate paper silvery black. Identify the gas Q. 3. pH of liquid R is 10. What kind of substance is R? 4. Salt S is prepared by reacting dilute sulphuric acid with copper oxide. Identify S.

Answer»

1. P → Calcium ion (Ca++

2. Q → Hydrogen sulphide gas (H2S) 

3. R → Base. 

4. S → Copper Sulphate (CuSO4).

1003.

Give one test that can he used to detect the presence of the ion produced.

Answer»

It will turn red litmus to blue.

1004.

Give one test that can be used to detect the presence of the ion produced.

Answer»

Red litmus turns blue/Methyl orange yellow/Phenolphthalein turns pink.

1005.

State the main components of the following alloys:1. Brass.2. Duralumin.3. Bronze.

Answer»

1. Brass: Cu + Zn.

2. Duralumin: Al + Cu + Mg + Mn

3. Bronze: Cu + Sn.

1006.

State the conditions required for the following reaction to take place : (i) Catalytic hydrogenation of ethyne. (ii) Preparation of ethyne from ethylene dibromide. (iii) Catalytic oxidiation of ammonia to nitric oxide.(iv) Any two conditions for the conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide.

Answer»

(i) In the presence of catalyst like finely divided nickel, platinum, heating upto 473 K. 

(ii) Hot and concentrated alcoholic solution of potassium hydroxide. 

(iii) Platinum gauze catalyst at 800C in presence of oxygen. 

(iv) Vanadium pentoxide as catalyst and temperature 450oC / 2 atm. pressure.

1007.

State the conditions required for the following reactions to take place: 1. Catalytic hydrogenation of ethyne. 2. Preparation of ethyne from ethylene dibromide. 3. Catalytic oxidation of ammonia to nitric oxide. 4. Any two conditions for the conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide.

Answer»

1. In presence of Catalyst like Ni/Pt/Pd etc. 

2. Heating of ethylene dibromide by using alcoholic KOH. 

3. In presence of Platinum catalyst at 800 °C. 

4. In presence of vanadium pentaoxide (V2O5) or Pt as catalyst at 450 °C.

1008.

What do you observe when ammonium hydroxide is added to the aqueous solution of:(a) FeSO4 (b) Iron (III) chloride, (c) Lead nitrate (d) Zinc nitrate?

Answer»

(a) Dirty green ppt. of Ferrous hydroxide is formed which is insoluble in excess of NH4OH.

FeSO4+ 2NH4OH  [NH4]2SO4 + Fe(OH)2

(b) Reddish brown ppt. of ferric hydroxide is formed which is insoluble in ammonium hydroxide.

FeCl3 + 3NH3OH  3NH4Cl + Fe(OH)3

(c) White ppt. of lead hydroxide is formed which is insoluble in NH4OH.

Pb(NO3)2 + 2NH4OH → 2NH4NO3 + Pb(OH)2

(d) White gelatinous ppt. of Zinc hydroxide is formed which is soluble in NH4OH.

Zn(NO3)2 + 2NH4OH 2NH4NO3 + Zn(OH)2

1009.

Calculate the mass of 0.4 mole of water.

Answer»

1 mole of water = 18 g

0.4 moles of water = 18 x 0.4

= 7.2 g

1010.

An organic compound was found to contain the following percentage composition: H = 2.22%, C = 26.65%, O = 71.11%  Find its empirical formula [H = 1, C = 12, O = 16]

Answer»
ElementSymbolRel. At. mass% comp.Relative no. of atomSimple ratio Simple whole no. ratio
HydrogenH12.22 2.22/1=2.222.22/2.22=11
CarbonC1226.6726.67/12=2.222.22/2.22=1 1 1
OxygenO1671.1171.11/16=4.444.44/2.22=2 2

Empirical formula – H1C1O2 = HCO2

1011.

To convert a pure semiconductor into n-type semiconductor, what type of impurity is added to it ?

Answer»

To get n-type semiconductor, the semiconductor is doped with an impurity like antimony.

1012.

What is the relation between wavelength and momentum of moving particles ?

Answer»

The required relation is λ = h/p where λ = wavelength and p the momentum of the particle and h = Planck’s constant

1013.

Give an example where energy is converted into matter.

Answer»

In pair production. It is materialization of energy

1014.

Name the series of lines in the hydrogen spectrum which lies in the ultra-violet region.

Answer»

The series emitted in the hydrogen spectrums in ultra-violet region is called the “Lyman Series.”

1015.

What is artificial insemination? Mention two ways in which it is useful in breeding of dairy animals.

Answer»

Artificial insemination is performed to get improved and better variety of animals. In this method, semen from the desired type of animal (e.g., bull) is collected and preserved by chemical methods or freezing. This preserved semen is then injected into the genital tract of the chosen cow during its maximum fertility period. Normal reproductive process then occurs and the progeny thus obtained is a hybrid of desired characters.

Artificial insemination is useful in breeding animals because :

1. It is economical as semen from a desired animal e.g., bull can be transported to far away places while transporting the animal is not easy. 

2. High quality semen is available all the time but a high-quality bull may not be available all the time and at all places.

1016.

State three functions of the placenta.

Answer»

In mammals, placenta performs the following functions : 

1. It helps in the nutrition of embryo as the nutrients like amino acids, monosugars, vitamins, etc., diffuse from maternal blood into foetal blood through placenta. 

2. It helps in respiration of the embryo as 02 of the maternal blood and C02 of foetal blood diffuse through placenta. 

3. It also helps in excretion of the embryo as nitrogenous wastes of foetal blood like urea diffuse into maternal blood through placenta. 

4. It also acts as an endocrine gland as it secretes certain hormones like estrogen, relaxin, progesterone and Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

1017.

State two advantages of vegetative propagation.

Answer»

Advantages of Vegetative Propagation : 

(i) It is the only known method of multiplication in seedless varieties and species, eg., Banana, Sugarcane. 

(ii) It is a quick method of multiplication. 

(iii) It helps in rapid spread of plant over an area. 

(iv) Good qualities of the race or variety can be preserved indefinitely.

1018.

Explain the role of hormones during the menstrual cycle.

Answer»

Menstruation phase occurs when the concentration of ovarian and gonadotropin hormones is low in blood. Reduced concentration of these hormones stimulates the hypothalamus to produce GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone). 

It activates anterior pituitary to gonadotropin hormones.

(i) Pituitary hormones : The pituitary hormones secreted during menstrual cycle are FSH and LH. The FSH (Follicular stimulating hormone) stimulates the growth of primary oocyte into secondary oocyte and the Graafian follicle.

The maximum level of LH (Luteinising hormone) induces rupture of Graafian follicle to release ovum containing secondary oocyte (ovulation).

(ii) Ovarian hormones : The FSH secretion by pituitary gland stimulates the ovarian follicles to secrete oestrogen. Oestrogen stimulates the proliferation of endometrium of the uterine wall. After ovulation, the remaining cells of ovarian follicle are stimulated by LH to develop corpus luteum which secretes large amount of progesterone. Progesterone is essential for maintenance of endometrium, for implantation of fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy. 

1019.

Give two differences between heartwood and sapwood.

Answer»

Differences between Sapwood or Alburnum and Heartwood or Duramen:

Sapwood (Alburnum)Heartwood (Duramen)
1. It is outer wood of an old stem.1. It is the central wood of an old stem.
2. It is light coloured.2. Heartwood is dark coloured.
3. Living cells are present.3. Living cells are absent.
4. Sapwood is the functional part of the secondary xylem or wood.4. Heartwood is the non-functional part of secondary xylem.
1020.

Give four adaptations shown by flowers pollinated by wind.

Answer»

Adaptation for wind-pollination or anemophily : 

(i) Flowers small inconspicuous. 

(ii) Calyx, corolla reduced or absent. 

(iii) Flowers colourless, nectarless or odourless. 

(iv) Flowers produced above and before foliage, in case of unisexual flowers, male flowers are abundant to compensate loss and to ensure the pollination. 

(v) Stamens and stigma (feathery) exserted and well exposed. 

(vi) Pollen grains, light, small, dusty, non-sticky or winged (Pinus). 

(vii) Pollen grains dry and unwettable, e.g., maize, grasses, Urtica. 

(viii) Number of ovules very less, often single. (any four points)

1021.

Correct the following statements bychanging the underlined words:Xylem transports starch from the leaves to all parts of the plant body.

Answer»

Phloem transports starch from the leaves to all parts of the plant body

1022.

Correct the following statements bychanging the underlined words: The cell sap of root hair is Hypotonic.

Answer»

The cell sap of root hair is Hypertonic

1023.

Correct the following statements bychanging the underlined words:The outermost layer of Meninges is Piamater.

Answer»

The outermost layer of Meninges is Dura mater

1024.

(i) Explain what are the desirable characteristics of an ideal cloning vector used in rDNA technology. (ii) Describe two vectorless methods of gene transfer used in rDNA technology.

Answer»

(i) Desirable characters of an ideal cloning vector : 

• Origin of replication: It is a specific sequence of nucleotides which serves as binding site for initiator protein (Helicase) to start replication. Any foreign DNA linked with vector DNA also gets replicated along with it, hence is important for maintaining the copy number of foreign DNA.

• Selectable markers : Cloning vectors must contain atleast one selectable marker or it helps in: – detection of transformed host cells, – Identification and elimination of nontransformed post cells, – Isolation and growth of transformed host cells. 

• Cloning sites : A cloning site is a restriction endonuclease recognition site or target site in vector DNA. It has palindromic sequence of nitrogenous bases cut by a specific restriction endonuclease enzyme for insertion and linking of foreign DNA. 

• Small size: A vector should be small in size because large molecules bind is break up during isolation and purification.

(ii) Two vectorless methods of gene transfer used in rDNA technology. 

• Chemical mediated gene transfer: Use of chemicals like polyethene glycol (PEG) and dextron sulphate induces DNA uptake by plant protoplast 

• Electroporation : Short electric impulse of high voltage causes fine transient forces in cell membrane through which foreign DNA enters into the cell.

1025.

Answer the following questions briefly and to the point:(i) Give a significant point of difference between Oestrous and Menstrual cycle. (ii) Give the biological name of the organism causing typhoid. (iii) If the haploid number of chromosomes in a plant species is 20, how many chromosomes will be present in the cells of the shoot tip? (iv) Name a plant which flowers every twelve years. (v) Name the diagnostic test for AIDS. (vi) Name the terminal stage of ageing in the life cycle of plants. (vii) Which organisms constitute the last trophic level? (viii) What is emasculation?

Answer»
Oestrous cycleMenstrual cycle
Occurs in non-primate mammals There is no blood flow. Female allows mating only during heatOccurs in primate mammals. Blood flow occurs. Female always allow mating.

(ii) Salmonella typhi 

(iii) 40 chromosomes 

(iv) Strobilanthes kunthiana / Neelakuranji 

(v) ELISA test/ Western blot test 

(vi) Senescence 

(vii) Decomposers 

(viii) Emasculation is removal of anthers from bisexual flower before maturing for cross-fertilization.

1026.

What is meant by genetic code ?

Answer»

Though made-up of only four types of nucleotides, nucleotides of DNA can be positioned in a countless way. As a result, single DNA molecule has several thousand nucleotides, a limitless specificity can be incorporated in the DNA. 

There is intimate connection between genes and the synthesis of polypeptides. Genes are made- up of nucleotides, arranged in a specific manner. Arrangement of nucleotides or their nitrogen bases is connected with synthesis of proteins by influencing the corporation of amino acids in them. The relationship between the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain and nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA is called genetic code. DNA contains only four types of nucleotide or nitrogen bases while the amino acid is 20. It was, therefore, hypothesized, the triplet code (consisting of three adjacent bases for one amino acid) is operative.

1027.

Why do we spray water on roads in hot summer days?

Answer»

In summer the roads become very hot and when water is sprinkled onto it the water absorbs the heat as it requires energy to vapourise. This energy is provided by the heat of the road which cools down the temperature of the roads.This is the reason for sprinkling water on the road.

1028.

Calculate the Gross Profit Ratio from the following information :ParticularsOpening Inventory Rs 80,000 Closing Inventory Rs 1,00,000 Revenue from Operations Rs 9,00,000Inventory Turnover Ratio 8 times

Answer»

Gross Profit Ratio = Gross Profit / Net Revenue from operations x 100

Gross Profit = Revenue from operations - Cost of Revenue from operations

Average Inventory = 80,000 + 10,00,000 / 2 = 90,000

Inventory Turnover Ratio = 8

∴ Cost of revenue from operations = 8 x 90,000

= 7, 20, 000

Gross Profit = 9,00,000 - 7,20,000

= Rs 1,80,000

Gross profit  Ratio = 1,80,00 / 9,00,000 x 100 = 20%

1029.

Discuss the effect of elasticity of demand on: (i) a commodity which has many substitutes. (ii) a small part of the individual’s income spent on a commodity.

Answer»

(i) Demand for a commodity with a large number of substitutes will be more elastic. The reason is that even a small rise in its prices will induce the buyers to buy the substitute.

(ii) The proportion of income spent: Proportion of consumer’s income that is spent on a particular commodity also influences the elasticity of demand for it. Greater the proportion of income spent on the commodity, more is the elasticity of demand for it and vice-versa. Demand for goods like salt, needle, soap, matchbox, etc. tends to be inelastic as consumers spend a small proportion of their income off such goods. When prices of such goods change, consumers continue to purchase almost the same quantity of these goods. However, if the proportion of income spent on a commodity is large, then demand for such a commodity will be elastic.

1030.

Define marginal cost. With the help of an example, show how marginal cost can be obtained from the total cost.

Answer»

Marginal cost (MC) is an addition made to the total cost (TC) when output is change by one unit i.e.,

MC = ΔTC/Q 

MC = TCn – TCn-1

For example: the marginal cost of 4th unit is the changed in the total cost when output is increased from three units to four units (i.e. 192 – 162 = 30), as shown in the table given below.

Output UnitsTC (Rs)MC
120
23030 – 20 = 10
35050 – 30 = 20
48080 – 50 = 30

1031.

Explain with an example, what kind of a commodity will have an inverse relationship between income and demand.

Answer»

Inferior goods have an inverse relationship between their demand and income. For example, the demand for an inferior good like maize may decrease when income increases beyond a particular level because the consumers may substitute it by a superior-good like wheat or rice.

1032.

(i) State and define the S.I. unit of power.(ii) How is the unit horse power related to the S.I. unit of power?

Answer»

(i) The rate of doing work is called power.

P = W/t

 S.I. unit of power is Joule/sec also called watt (w)

(ii) 1 house power (hp) = 746 watts

1033.

(b) State the energy changes in the following cases while in use:(i) An electric iron(ii) Aceiling fan

Answer»

(i) Electrical energy into heat energy.

(ii) Electrical energy into mechanical energy.

1034.

What are sweat equity shares?

Answer»

Sweat equity shares are equity shares issued by a company to its employees or directors at a discount, or as a consideration for providing know-how or a similar value to the company.

A company may issue sweat equity shares of a class of shares already issued if these conditions are met:

The issue of sweat equity’ shares should be authorised by a special resolution passed by the company in a general meeting. The resolution should specify the number of shares, current market price, consideration if any, and the section of directors/employees to whom they are to be issued. As on the date of issue, a year should have elapsed since the company was entitled to commence business.

1035.

Explain any three disadvantages of issuing equity shares, from the Company's point of view.

Answer»

1. If only equity shares are issued, the company cannot take the advantage of trading on equity.

2. As equity’ capital cannot be redeemed, there is a danger of over capitalization. 

3. Equity’ shareholders can put obstacles for management by manipulation and organizing themselves.

1036.

List any four features of NEFT.

Answer»

National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) is a nationwide payment system used in India allowing bank’s customer to transfer fund easily on one to one basis. Under the system of NEFT any individual, firm or corporate can transfer funds electronically to another individual, firm or corporation. This facility is provided by banks across the country and allows remittance to Nepal as well.

Features of NEFT

• NEFT is a paperless mode of remitting funds intra-bank, interbank, intra-city and intercity. 

• It is a very fast mode of getting credits into the accounts. An NEFT gets credited to the account after 2 hours on the same day or by the next morning. 

• NEFT is a cost-effective service as compared to Drafts or Cheques. Banks charge a very nominal fee for sending NEFT to the other accounts. 

• Banks do not charge any fee for inward credits into the accounts.

1037.

What is meant bv NEFT ? Give any two features of NEFT.

Answer»

NEFT stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer. This facility is provided by commercial banks to the persons requesting for sending funds from one branch of the bank to another branch of the same bank or different bank. The customer can transfer money from Rupee one to any limit at very’ nominal charges. These charges are much lesser than sending the funds through a draft.

1038.

Explain five factors that should be taken into consideration while determining the price of a product or service.

Answer»

Cost of Production : Cost of production/service is the main component of price. No company can sell its product or sen ices at less than the cost of production. Before price fixation, it is necessary to compile data relating to the cost of production and keep that in mind.

Demand for Product: Intensiv e study of demand for product and sen ices in the market be undertaken before price fixation. If demand is relatively more than supply , higher price can be fixed.

Price of Competing Firms: It is necessary to take into consideration prices of the products of the competing firms before fixing the price. In case of cut-throat competition prices are required to be kept low.

1039.

What is a micro region ? Give an example of it.

Answer»

The micro-regions are the smallest of all planning regions and have the potential for development of at least one specialization of production cycle of great significance.

Example: agriculture in Punjab, tourism in Jammu and Kashmir.

1040.

Define the term micro-region. Name any one micro-region in India.

Answer»

A micro-region is defined as a territorial area smaller than the state to which it belongs but larger than a municipality and also has the potential for developing at least one specialisation of production of cycle. Agriculture in Punjab and the Hilly region in U.P. is an example of a micro-region.

1041.

Explain any three objectives of Marketing.

Answer»

Objectives of marketing are : 

Creation of Demand : The first objective of marketing is to create demand through various means. An attempt is made to find out the preferences and tastes of the consumers. Goods and services are produced to satisfy the needs of the customers. Demand is also created by informing the customers the utility of various goods and serv ices.

Customer Satisfaction : The marketing manager must study the demands of customers before offering them any goods or services. Selling the goods or services is not that important as the satisfaction of the customers’ needs. Modern marketing is customer- oriented. It begins and ends with the customer.

Generation of profits : Marketing also targets at profits. If the firm is not earning profits, it will not be able to survive in the market. Moreover, profits are also needed for the growth and diversification of the firm.

1042.

What is the difference between a micro-planning region and a meso-planning region?

Answer»

Micro-planning regions are the smallest of all planning regions and have the potential for developing at least one specialization of production cycle of great significance. A region that possesses great potentialities for development and production of any single specialization can be treated as micro-region. e.g. agriculture in Punjab.

Meso-planning regions combine in themselves a few micro-regions and lie at the middle of the hierarchy of planning regions. The micro regions which form the mesoregions must have something common in terms of their natural background, their problems and prospects or their socio-cultural bond. Unlike micro-regions, mesoregions are multipurpose regions, e.g., Damodar Valley Basin.

1043.

What are Public Deposits ? Briefly explain any two merits of Public Deposits.

Answer»

Public deposits refer to the unsecured deposits invited by companies from the public mainly to finance working capital needs. A company can invite public deposits for a period of six months to three years. Therefore, public deposits are primarily a source of short-term finance. However, the deposits can be renewed from time-to time.  Renewal facility enables companies to use public deposits as medium-term finance.

Merits of public deposits are : 

Simplicity: Public deposits are a very convenient source of business finance. The company raising deposits has to simply give an advertisement and issue a receipt to each depositor

Economical: Interest paid on public deposits is lower than that paid on debentures and bank loans. Moreover, no underwriting commission, brokerage, etc. has to be paid. Interest paid on public deposits is tax deductible which reduces tax liability. Therefore, public deposits are a cheaper source of finance. 

1044.

(i) Name two important minerals forming the resource base of the Chhattisgarh region. (ii) What is sericulture ? Why is this important to the people of the above mentioned region ? (iii) Name two varieties of silk produced in Chhattisgarh.

Answer»

(i) . Iron ore, bauxite, limestone and dolomite,

(ii) The technique of silk production is called sericulture. Sericulture is a labour intensive industry and provides employment to a large number of people. Silk is produced by small units usually by individual families. Chhattisgarh is a densely populated region with mainly rural population. Cheap skilled labour is easily available. So, sericulture has become an important industry to this region. 

(iii) Tussar silk and Mulberry silk.

1045.

Name two industrial products of the Gujarat Industrial Region.

Answer»

Textiles (cotton, silk and synthetic fibres) and petrochemicals are the most important industrial products of the Gujarat industrial region.

1046.

Discuss the importance of the Haldia Planning Region under the following headings :(i) Location of the main centre. (ii) Reason for construction. (iii) Two important industries located in the region. (iv) Extent of hinterland.

Answer»

(i) Haldia is located at the confluence of rivers Hooghly and Haldia about 105 kms downstream from Kolkata. 

(ii) Haldia port has been developed to release congestion at the Kolkata port. 

(iii) Petrochemical industry and Fertilizer industry. 

(iv) The hinterland of the Haldia port includes the whole of eastern and northeastern India. The main areas are West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, UP, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura and Northern parts of Chhattisgarh.

1047.

Explain with reference to its location, how Haldia Port has helped release congestion at Kolkata Port.

Answer»

Haldia Port has been developed to release congestion at Kolkata Port. 

This port is located at the confluence of river Hugli about 105 km. downstream from Kolkata.

• It receives larger vessels which otherwise would have gone to Kolkata. 

• Some of the large vessels which cannot enter the Kolkata port can easily come up to Haldia. 

• The hinterland of port Haldia is more or less the same as that of Kolkata. It covers a vast area which includes almost the whole of eastern and northeastern parts of the country.

1048.

With reference to Haldia Port, state the following : (i) Its location. (ii) The two main items of trade.

Answer»

(i) Location: It is located at the confluence of rivers Hugli and Haldia about 105 km downstream from Kolkata.

(ii) Items of Trade: The main items of trade are mineral oil and petroleum products.

1049.

With reference to Haldia Port, answer the following questions : (i) At the confluence of which two rivers is it located ? (ii) Why was the port developed ?

Answer»

(i) Haldia port is located at the confluence of Hugh and Haldia. 

(ii) Haldia port was developed to release congestion at the Kolkata port and to enable docking of larger vessels which cannot enter Kolkata port.

1050.

With reference to Haldia Port, answer the following questions :(i) Location of the port. (ii) Hinterland. (iii) Reason for its development.

Answer»

(i) Haldia port is located at the confluence of rivers Hooghly and Haldi about 105 km downstream from Kolkata. 

(ii) Hinterland covers a vast area including almost the whole of eastern and northeastern parts of the country, West Bengal, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura and northern parts of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh 

(iii) Haldia port has been developed to release congestion at Kolkata port.