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2701.

In Young’s double slit experiment, what is the path difference between the two light waves forming 5th bright band (fringe) on the screen ?

Answer»

For bright fringes we know that 

p = nλ = 5λ

2702.

What is meant by diffraction of light ?

Answer»

When a light ray is obstructed by an object having the size of the order of the wavelength of the ray in its path, light bends from the sharp edge and infers in the region of geometrical shadow. This phenomenon is known as diffraction of light.

2703.

Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in increasing order of their frequencies (i.e., begin with the lowest frequency) : Visible light, γ-rays, X-rays, microwaves, radio waves, infrared radiations and ultraviolet radiations

Answer»

Radio waves < micro waves < infrared < visible light < ultraviolet radiations < Xrays < γ-rays.

2704.

State any one property which is common to all electromagnetic waves

Answer»

Electromagnetic waves do not deflect in electric and magnetic fields.

2705.

State where the input voltage is applied and where the output voltage is available.

Answer»

The input is applied in between AB and the output is obtained at load i.e., in between MN.

2706.

Figure below shows the circuit of an electronic device :

Answer»

This is the circuit diagram of a common emitter amplifier (using p-n-p transistor)

2707.

Give the conjugate acid and the conjugate base for NH3.

Answer»

Conjugate acid → NH4+

Conjugate base → NH-2

2708.

State Faraday’s First Law of Electrolysils

Answer»

The weight of a substance liberated at the electrode as a result of electrolysis is directly proportional to the quantity of electric passed through the solution.

2709.

How many electrons will flow when a current of 5 amperes is passed through a solution for 200 seconds?

Answer»

Q = It.

Q = 5 × 200 = 1000 C

96500 C correspond to the flow of 6.022 x 1023 electrons

1000 C will correspond to the flow of

\(\frac{6.0022\times10^{23}}{96500}\times1000\)

= 6.24 x 1021 electrons

2710.

Graphite is anisotropic with respect to the conduction of electric current. Explain.

Answer»

This is due to its chemical bonding properties. In graphite, there are C-atoms arranged in hexagonal layers which are held together by weak van der Waals forces of attraction.

2711.

Give reasons for the following:(i) A reaction/process will be spontaneous when it is exothermic and randomness is increasing.(ii) The number of hydronium ions increase when one litre of water is added to 1M acetic acid.

Answer»

(i) For exothermic process, ΔH is negative. Therefore, energy factor favours the process. 

Since randomness is increasing, therefore, it also favours the process. Since both factors are favourable, the reaction will be spontaneous and ΔG will be high -ve.

(ii) 1 M acetic acid i.e. 60 gms acetic acid dissolved in 1000 mL H2O

CH3COOH dissociated to CH3COO- and H3OH2O dissociated to H3O+ and OH ion 

So, total no. of H3O+ ion increases in dissociation condition.

2712.

What are semiconductors? What is the effect of increasing temperature on the conductivity of a semiconductor?

Answer»

The solids whose conductivity lies between metal conductors and insulators are called semiconductors.

The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increasing temperature.

2713.

What is the effect of temperature on the ionic product of water (Kw)?

Answer»

Kw for water increases with the increase in temperature due to the increase in the degree of ionisation of water.

2714.

Match the following:(i) Weak electrolyte(a) pH of a solution(ii) Colour in crystals(b) Iodoform(iii) Acetone(c) Tollen’s reagent(iv) Sorensen(d) Ostwald dilution law(v) Ammoniacal silver nitrate(e) F – centre

Answer»

(i) (d) 

(ii) (e) 

(iii) (b) 

(iv) (a) 

(v) (c)

2715.

A solution of potassium chloride has no effect on litmus whereas, a solution of zinc chloride turns the blue litmus red. Give a reason.

Answer»

This is because KCl does not undergo hydrolysis in water and the aqueous solution is neutral whereas ZnCl2 undergoes hydrolysis in water to give an acidic solution which turns blue litmus solution red.

2716.

Match the following:(i) Weak electrolyte(a) pH of a solution(ii) Colour in crystals(b) Iodoform(iii) Acetone(c) Tollen’s reagent(iv) Sorensen(d) Ostwald dilution law(v) Ammoniacal silver nitrate(e) F – centre

Answer»

(i) (d)

(ii) (e)

(iii) (b)

(iv) (a)

(v) (c)

2717.

How many sodium ions and chloride ions are present in a unit cell of sodium chloride crystal?

Answer»

Number of Na+ ions = 4

Number of Cl ions = 4

2718.

What is the order of reaction whose rate constant has the same unit as the rate of reaction?

Answer»

Zero, this is because

r = k[A]n

If order is zero, i.e., n = 0

r = k

2719.

In the equation, CH3COOH + Cl2\(\frac{RedP}{-HCl}\)A, the compound A is:(1) CH3CH2Cl (2) ClCH2COOH (3) CH3Cl (4) CH3COCl

Answer»

(2) ClCH2COOH

2720.

When SO2 gas is passed through the acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, the colour of the solution changes to:(1) Red(2) Black(3) Orange(4) Green

Answer»

When SO2 gas is passed through the acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, the colour of the solution changes to Green

2721.

Wohler’s synthesis is used for the preparation of:(1) Glycine(2) Amino acids(3) Urea(4) Proteins

Answer»

Wohler’s synthesis is used for the preparation of Urea

2722.

The complexion [Ni(CN)4]2- is:(1) Square planar and diamagnetic(2) Tetrahedral and Paramagnetic(3) Square planar and paramagnetic(4) Tetrahedral and Diamagnetic

Answer»

(1) Square planar and diamagnetic

2723.

The electrochemical equivalent is the amount of substance which gets deposited from its solution on passing electrical charge equal to:(1) 96,500 Coulombs(2) 1 Coulomb(3) 60 Coulombs(4) 965 Coulombs

Answer»

(1) 96,500 Coulombs

2724.

Write the IUPAC names of the following:(i) [CO(NH3)4SO4]NO3(ii) K[Pt(NH3)Cl3]

Answer»

(i) [CO(NH3)5 SO4] NO3

penta ammine sulphato cobalt (III) nitrate

(ii) K [Pt (NH3) Cl3]

potassium ammine tri chlorido platinate (II)

2725.

Write the formula of the following compounds: (i) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride.(ii) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

Answer»

(i) [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 

(ii) K3[Fe(CN)6]

2726.

To which class of compounds does IF7 belong? What is the structure of the molecule?

Answer»

IF7 belongs to the category of interhalogen compounds. This molecule has pentagonal bipyramidal geometry.

2727.

In a given transition series, there is no significant change in the atomic radii of elements with an increase in atomic number. Explain why.

Answer»

In a transition series, with increasing atomic number, the nuclear charge increases. The electrons are added into penultimate d-subshell. The added delectrons shield the outermost electrons. As d-electrons increase shielding effect also increases. This counterbalances the increased nuclear charge. As a result, there is no significant change in the atomic radii of elements with an increase in atomic number.

2728.

Give the IUPAC names for the following:(i) Na3[AlF6](ii) [CO(NH3)6]Cl3

Answer»

(i) sodium hexafluoridoaluminate(III)

(ii) hexaamminecobalt(III)chloride

2729.

The energy released when an electron is added to a neutral gaseous isolated atom to form a negatively charged iron.

Answer»

Electron affinity or electron gain enthalpy.

2730.

Name the important ore of silver. Write all the steps and reactions involved in the cyanide process for the extraction of silver from its ore.

Answer»

Important ore of silver is silver glance -Ag2S, Pyragyrite – 3AgS.Sb2S3, Horn silver – AgCl

Silver nitrate reaction with KCN solution white ppt. of silver cyanide is fonned which dissolves in excess of KCN due to complex formation.

Extraction of silver by cyanide process:

(i) Concentration: The sulphide ore is crushed, powdered and then concentrated by the froth floatation process.

(ii) Treatment with Sodium Cyanide: 

(iii) Precipitation of silver:

(iv) Fusion: The precipitate silver is filtered, pressed, dried and fused with borax when a bright compact mass is obtained.

(v) Purification: Silver usually contains impurities of Zn, Cu and Au. This purified by electrolysis process. Thus, we get pure silver.

2731.

The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1.5 x 10-9 . Find out its solubility in pure water.

Answer»

BaSO4 = Ba2+ + SO42-

Ks = (S)2 = 1.5 x 10-9

 S = \(\sqrt{1.5\times10^{-9}}\)  = \(\sqrt{1.5\times10^{-10}}\)

= 3.87 x 10-15 mol L-1

2732.

Explain the following:(i) Why do transition metal ions possess a great tendency to form complexes?(ii) The paramagnetic character in 3d-transition series elements increases up to Mn and then decreases.

Answer»

(i) Because cations of transition elements have vacant d-orbitals of appropriate energy and these cations have high +ve charge and small size.

(ii) Because magnetic moment increased upto Mn and then decreases.

2733.

What is meant by Promoter? Give an example.

Answer»

It is a substance which is added to a catalyst to increase its activity, e.g. molybdenum is used as a promoter in the preparation of NH3 by Haber's process.

2734.

Give balanced chemical equations for the following reactions: (i) Fluorine treated with dilute sodium hydroxide reactions.(ii) Hydrogen sulphide treated with concentrated sulphuric acid.(iii) Potassium iodide treated with acidified potassium permanganate solution.

Answer»

(i) Fluorine treated with dilute sodium hydroxide reactions.

2F2 + 2NaOH → 2NaF + H2O + OF2

(ii) Hydrogen sulphide treated with concentrated sulphuric acid.

H2S + H2SO4(conc) → S + SO2 + 2H2O

(iii) Potassium iodide treated with acidified potassium permanganate solution.

2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 + 10KI → 6K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 5I2

2735.

Identify the type of market which has a characteristic of perfect substitutes. 

Answer»

Perfectly competitive market.

2736.

What is meant by supernormal profit?

Answer»

When revenue is more than costs (including normal profits) is what we call pure profits or economic profits in economics. Pure profit is also known as ‘super normal profit’.

2737.

Who appoints the Chief Minister of a State ?

Answer»

Governor appoints the Chief Minister of a State.

2738.

(a) How many members can the President nominate to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha ?(b) Explain the term quorum. (c) Mr. Konar was not found eligible for the election as the Vice President of India even though he had the qualifications of being a citizen of India and not being a member of the Parliament and the State legislature. On what grounds was he disqualified ? Give one reason.(d) When can ordinances be issued by the President ?(e) By whom and on whose advice is the State Council of Ministers appointed ?(f) Under what provision can a non-member of the State Legislature be appointed as a minister ?(g) What does the term ‘collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers’ imply ?(h) Who appoints the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court ?(i) What is understood by the Revisory Jurisdiction of the High Court ?(j) Which is the highest Court dealing with the criminal cases at the district level ?

Answer»

(a) Two members of the anglo Indian community to the Lok Sabha and Twelve members to Rajya Sabha. 

(b) Quorum: It means the minimum number of members required to be present in order to enable the house to conduct the session of the assembly. It is usually 1/10 of the total membership. 

(c) Mr. Konar was disqualified on the basis of his disqualification for election as a member of Rajya Sabha. 

(d) Ordinances can be issued by the President at a time when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. 

(e) Answer has not given due to out of present syllabus. 

(f) Answer has not given due to out of present syllabus. 

(g) The term Collective Responsibility means that all the members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible for the decisions taken by them pertaining to the Government of the State. 

(1) Supreme Court 

(2) High Court 

(h) The President appoints the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. 

(i) If the High court feels that the Subordinate court has exercised a jurisdiction not vested in it or has acted with gross irregularity, it may make such order in the case as it seems fit. This is the revisory jurisdiction of the High Court. 

(j) The highest criminal court of the district is the court of session judge.

2739.

There were several far reaching consequences as a result of the First World War. In this context, answer the following: (a) Explain how World War I brought about a changed political scenario of the world.(b) What did France gain from the Treaty of Versailles ? (c) How was the war responsible for the rise of Fascism and Nazism in Italy and Germany respectively ?

Answer»

(a) (i) Three ruling dynasties were destroyed Romonov, Hohenzollern and Hapsburg. 

(ii) Rule of Ottomans came to an end. 

(iii) Austria-Hungary, Czechoslovakia and Yogoslavia became separate independent states. 

(b) (i) It was given full control over the rich coal mines in the Saar basin although the area was governed by the League of Nations. 

(ii) It was also given some regions of Togo and Cameroons (South East Africa). 

(iii) Alsace-Lorraine captured from France in the France-Russian war (1871) was returned to France. 

(c) Rise of Fascism: 

1. Discontentment after the treaty of Versailles: Italy had joined the AngloFrench alliance against Germany and her allies in the First World War as Britain had promised large chunks of territory after their victory. However the promise went unkempt to a certain extent. She had only two islands in the Adriatic and Aegean seas. Among Italians there was a feeling of being let down. 

2. Economics crises in Germany and Italy, heavy losses, unemployment, shortage of food grains at the end of the war, thousands of soldiers in Italy had become unemployed. Industrialisation had not progressed and unemployment was on the rise. Even the unemployed working class felt the pinnacle of inflation with low wages and poor working conditions. There were frequent strikes and agrarian riots. 

Rise of Nazism : 1. The Germans felt hurt, anger and humiliation by the terms of the treaty of Versailles. They blamed the leaders of the Wiener Republic for accepting the heavy penalties imposed on her. All her colonies were taken away. Many of her territories were shared by the European powers. She was militarily weak. 

2. The first World War had ruined German economy. The heavy burden of war penalties had made her recovery more difficult. She had to borrow heavily from other countries. Inflation and unemployment went hand in hand. Thus between 1924 and 1933 the Nazi party ranks were swelling with German youth.

2740.

With reference to the Two Major World Wars in the 20th century, answer the following questions : (a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism. (b) Explain briefly the territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I. (c) State any four causes that led to the Second World War.

Answer»

(a) Causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism : 

1. Nationalism : Nationalism was prevalent in early 20th century Europe and became a significant cause of World War I. Most pre-war Europeans believed in the cultural, economic and military supremacy of their nation. Their attitudes and over-confidence were fuelled by things like provocative speeches or press reports. The pages of newspapers were often packed with nationalist rhetoric and inflammatory stories, such as rumours about rival nations and their evil intentions. Nationalism was also present in other aspects of popular culture, including literature, music and theatre. Royals, politicians and diplomats did little to deflate nationalism – and some actively contributed to it with provocative remarks and rhetoric. Nationalism also gave citizens inflated confidence in their nation, their governments and their military strength. It assured them that their country was fair, righteous and without blame. In contrast, nationalist ideas demonised rival nations, caricaturing them as aggressive, scheming, deceitful, backward or uncivilised. Nationalist reporting convinced many that their country was being threatened by the plotting, scheming and hungry imperialism of its rivals. Nationalist and militarist rhetoric assured them that if war erupted, their nation was bound to emerge victorious. In concert with its dangerous brothers imperialism and militarism, nationalism contributed to a continental delusion where a European war seemed both necessary and winnable. 

2. Imperialism : Imperialism is when a powerful nation-state seizes territories outside its own borders, transforming and governing them as colonies. Several European nations had empires in the late 19th century, though the British Empire was by far the largest of these. This period saw a race to acquire the last territories open for colonisation. Much of this occurred in Africa, where Britain, France and Germany all competed for new colonial possessions. This ‘scramble for empire’ fuelled rivalry and led to several diplomatic incidents, such as two ‘Moroccan crises’ that were largely precipitated by the German Kaiser. The deterioration of another imperial power, the Ottoman Empire, attracted the attention of European powers, who sought territory, influence or access in the Balkans and Eastern Europe.

(b) Territorial rearrangements as a result of the World War I : The political map of Europe was transformed after the peace treaties : 

(i) Germany was forced to cede Alsace and Lorainne to France and surrender the areas of Eupin and Malmedy to Belgium. 

(ii) Germany was also forced to hand over to Poland, large parts of industrial areas to Silesia. 

(iii) New states such as Romania, Czechoslovakia, Finland and Yugoslavia were created. 

(iv) The war ended the autocratic monarchies in Germany, Russia, Austria and Hungary. Hungary was recognized as a separate state after the Russian Revolution in 1917 when Czarist dictatorship came to an end. 

(c) Four causes of the Second World War : 

(i) The Treaty of Versailles signed in 1919 ended the World War I, but it could not establish real peace in Europe. This treaty was unjust and harsh to Germany which was sought to be crippled by the victorious Allied Powers forever. Quite naturally, the Germans could not accept the terms of the Treaty of Versailles from the depth of their heart. Hence, when Hitler opposed the Treaty of Versailles and sought to raise Germany once again to its former position of glory, he was supported by the Germans whole-heartedly. Thus, the Treaty of Versailles was responsible for World War II. 

(ii) The democratic governments could not solve the varied problems which cropped up in countries such as Germany, Italy, etc. in the post-war period. As a consequence, in these countries, developed aggressive nationalism which aimed only at establishing the supremacy of the respective nations. 

(iii) As a matter of fact, the rise of Nazism in Germany and Fascism in Italy may be regarded as one of the major causes of World War II. Hitler of Germany and Mussolini of Italy believed in imperialistic activities and the application of force for the realization of objectives. (iv) After his rise to power, Hitler adopted an aggressive policy, which was not opposed by powerful countries such as England and France. Their policy of appeasement increased Hitler’s craving for the conquest of countries and paved the path for World War II.

2741.

Numerous causes gave rise to the First War of Independence and its consequences led to several changes in the British Government in India. In this context, answer the following : (a) Explain any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857. (b) Briefly explain the immediate cause of the Great Revolt. (c) State any four changes in the administration of the British Government as a consequence of the Revolt.

Answer»

(a) Three political causes of the Revolt of 1857 : 

(i) Lord Dalhousie’s Policy of Annexation and the Doctrine of Lapse made the British very unpopular, the rulers of different states became bitter enemies of the British. 

(ii) The British refused to grant pension to Nana Sahib, as he was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. This act of the British turned Nana Sahib into a strong enemy of the British. 

(iii) In 1849, Lord Dalhousie announced that after Bahadur Shah, his successor would not be permitted to use the Red Fort as their palace. In 1856, Lord Canning announced that Bahadur Shah’s successor will not be allowed to use the imperial titles with their names. This enraged the Muslims, consequently, Bahadur Shah began plotting conspiracy against the British. (b) The immediate cause of the Great Revolt was the introduction of Enfield rifles in the army because to load the rifle, the sepoys had to bite the cartridge open to release the powder. The grease used on these cartridges was rumored to be made of beef and pork fat, which enraged the Hindus and the Muslims. Mangal Pandey, an Indian soldier, revolted by firing at the British officer and sparked the Great Revolt. 

(c) Four changes in administration of the British Government as a consequence of the Revolt : 

(i) The control of the Indian Government was finally assumed by the British Crown. The Governor General received a new title of Viceroy. The assumption of the Government of India by the Sovereign of Great Britain was announced by Lord Canning at a Darbar held at Allahabad in proclamation issued on 1st November, 1858, in the name of the Queen. 

(ii) The Army which participated in the outbreak was thoroughly reorganized, and for the next fifty years, the idea of division and counterpoise dominated the British Military Policy regarding India. 

(iii) The British Government now took up a new attitude towards the Indian states. The Act of 1858 ended Dualism in the control of Indian affairs and made the Crown directly responsible for the management of Indian affairs. 

(iv) The administrative bodies of the Company, namely, the Board of Control and their powers were abolished and these powers were transferred to a British Cabinet Minister known as the Secretary of State.

2742.

The President and the Vice-President are part of the Union Executive. In this context, answer the following questions : (a) State any three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice-President of India. (b) State the three functions of the Vice-President. (c) Explain briefly any two Legislative and any two Executive powers of the President.

Answer»

 (a) Three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice-President of India: 

(i) He/she must have completed more than 35 years of age. 

(ii) He/she should not hold any office of profit. 

(iii) He/she must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). 

(b) Three functions of the Vice-President : 

(i) The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States. He may cast his vote when there is a tie. 

(ii) He represents the Council of States on ceremonial occasions. 

(iii) He protects the rights and privileges of the members of the Council of States. 

(c) Two Legislative powers of the President :

(i) The President can summon, prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha or can even call a joint session of the Parliament. 

(ii) After the general elections, the President addresses the joint session of the new Parliament and the first session of every year and outlines the government’s national and international policies.

Two Executive powers of the President :

(i) The President is the executive head of the country and the executive authority vests in him.

(ii) He appoints the Prime Minister, and on his advice, appoints the Council of Ministers, the Governors of the States, the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, the Chairman of the UPSC, the Comptroller and the Auditor General of India and the Chiefs of all the Armed Forces.

2743.

Study the picture given below and answer the following questions :(a) Identify the leader given in the picture. Name the Political party and the Military Organisation that he formed. (b) State any three objectives of the Political party that he founded. (c) Mention any four objectives of the Military Organisation that he formed.

Answer»

(a) The leader given in the picture is the great freedom fighter Subhas Chandra Bose. He formed the political party named Forward Bloc and the Military Organisation named Indian National Army (INA). 

(b) Three objectives of Forward Bloc founded by Subhas Chandra Bose : 

(i) Abolition of landlord system and introduction of a uniform land tenure system in the entire country. 

(ii) Unity of all radical organisations under one national organisation. 

(iii) Promotion to the interests of peasants and workers. 

(c) Four objectives of the Indian National Army (INA) formed by Subhas Chandra Bose : 

(i) To organize an armed revolution and to fight against the British army with modern weapons and ammunition. 

(ii) The task of organizing an armed revolution was to be undertaken by the Indians who resided abroad. 

(iii) Provisional government of free India in order to mobilize all the forces effectively. 

(iv) Total mobilization of man power and money across India for a full-fledged war against the British.

2744.

The Quit India Resolution in 1942 was one of the final calls given by Gandhi for the British to leave India. Moving towards Independence, Lord Mountbatten's Plan was significant. In this context, answer the following : (a) State two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. (b) Give any three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 that was significant to the last phase of the National Movement of India. (c) Give any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947.

Answer»

(a) Two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement : 

(i) The Cripps Mission had failed. It seemed that the British Government was unwilling to grant self-government to the Indians. The Congress had to do something about this. 

(ii) In 1940, at Lahore, the Muslim League had officially declared their demand of a separate Pakistan. The leaders declared that the Muslims in India would not get justice from the Congress. This intensified Hindu-Muslim relations. 

(b) Three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 : 

(i) The Quit India Movement demonstrated the depth of nationalistic feelings: The movement exhibited the depth of nationalistic feelings and made the British realize that the days of their domination in India were numbered. People from all parts of India fought together against the British.

(ii) Setback to the British : The British officials had now realized that the British would not be able to retain their hold on India. 

(iii) Parallel Government : A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of parallel governments in Balia in Uttar Pradesh, Midnapur in Bengal and Satara in Maharashtra. 

(c) Four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947 : 

(i) Partition of Sindh, Bengal and Punjab to be based on the decision of their Legislative Assemblies. 

(ii) There would be a referendum in NWFP and in part of Sylhet, where there was Muslim majority. 

(iii) The princely states were given freedom to join either India or Pakistan or remain independent. 

(iv) A Boundary Commission would be set up to mark out boundaries when and where required.

2745.

Study the picture given below and answer the following questions :(a) Identify the leader given in the picture. Name the Political party and the Military Organisation that he formed. (b) State any three objectives of the Political party that he founded. (c) Mention any four objectives of the Military Organisation that he formed.

Answer»

(a) Subhas Chandra Bose. Forward Bloc and Indian National Army (INA). 

(b) (i) To develop the economy on socialistic ideas. (ii) Abolition of landlordism i.e., Zamindari System. 

(iii) A new monetary and credit system. 

(c) (i) The basic aim of the INA was to overthrow the British Raj in colonial India. (ii) To establish Provisional Government of Free India. 

(iii) To take help from Japan Japanese Army and heist Indian flag on Indian soil by overthrowing the British Raj. 

(iv) To expand and strengthen Indian Independence league.

2746.

The Quit India Resolution in 1942 was one of the final calls given by Gandhi for the British to leave India. Moving towards Independence, Lord Mountbatten’s Plan was significant. In this context, answer the following :(a) State two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement.(b) Give any three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 that was significant to the last phase of the National Movement of India. (c) Give any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947.

Answer»

(a) (i) Failure of the Cripps Mission : The failure of the Cripps Mission left no meeting ground between the Congress and the government. It was clear from the proposals that the government was not willing to grant independence in the near future. The Indians were also not happy at the proposals of Cripps Mission because proposals contained within them provisions which could divide India into hundreds of independent provinces. 

(ii) War Situation : There was every possibility that India might be attacked by Japan and the Indians were’ helpless because they had no power or means to resist the attack. So, the Indian leaders felt that the situation called for complete independence. Gandhiji also felt that an orderly and peaceful withdrawal of the British could save India from internal anarchy and external aggression. 

(b) (i) It demonstrated the depth of the national feelings : The movement showed the depth of the national will and convinced the Britishers that the days of their domination in India were numbered. People from all parts of India fought together against the Britishers. 

(ii) Set back to the Britishers : Now the British officials had realized that the British would not be able to retain their hold on India. 

(iii) Parallel Government : A significant feature of the Quit India Movement was the emergence of parallel governments in Ballia in Uttar Pradesh, Midnapur in Bengal and Satara in Maharashtra. 

(c) (i) Division of the Country : The country would be divided into two Dominions i.e, India and Pakistan. 

(ii) The Constituent Assembly : The existing Constituent Assembly would continue to work, but the Constitution framed by it would not be applied to Pakistan. A separate Constituent Assembly would be constituted for those parts which decided in favour of partition. 

(iii) The Princely States : The Princely States would be free to choose their own option, and treaties signed with them would soon come to an end. 

(iv) A Boundary Commission : A Boundary Commission would be set up to decide about the boundary disputes.

2747.

The President and the Vice-President are part of the Union Executive. In this context, answer the following questions : (a) State any three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the VicePresident of India.(b) State the three functions of the Vice-President.(c) Explain briefly any tu o Legislative and any two Executive powers of the President.

Answer»

(a) (i) He must be a citizen of India. 

(ii) Must not be less than 35 years of age. 

(iii) Must be qualified for election as member of the Rajya Sabha. 

(b) He is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 

(i) He regulates the debates and proceedings of this House. 

(ii) He decides about the admissibility of a question or a resolution in the Rajya Sabha. (iii) He decides about the serial order and time limit of speech of a member. 

(c) Legislative powers : 

1. The President summons the sessions of both the Houses of Parliament and prorogues them. He inaugurates the Parliament by addressing it after the general elections, at the beginning of the first session every year. He can also direct a joint session of both the Houses to be held in a certain situation. 

2. The President has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can do so on the advice of the Prime Minister, if this is done before the expiry of its full term. When the Lok Sabha completes its full term of five years, the President announces the dissolution of the Lok Sabha of his own. But he cannot dissolve the Rajya Sabha, because it is a permanent House. 

Executive powers : 

1. The President appoints the Prime Minister and on his advice, he appoints other Ministers in the Cabinet. 

2. The President appoints high dignitaries such as the Attorney General of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, the State Governors, Ambassadors and High Commissioners. He also appoints Chairmen and members of the Union Public Service Commission, Finance Commission, the Chief Election Commissioner and the two other members of the Election Commission.

2748.

Our Judicial system has a Supreme Court at its Apex, followed by the High Court and other Subordinate Courts. In the light of this statement, explain the following : (a) Any three types of cases in which the Supreme Court exercises its Original Jurisdiction.(b) Any three ways by which the Constitution ensures the Independence of the Judiciary.(c) ‘Advisory’ and ‘Revisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Answer»

(a) Original Jurisdiction means the authority and power of the Supreme Court to hear a case in the first instance directly. 

The original and exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to the following cases : 

• Interpretation of the Constitution in case of a dispute between the Union Government and one or more States. 

• Interpretation of the Constitution in case of dispute between two or more States interests, relating to some justiciable right, 

• The Supreme Court has the exclusive jurisdiction to determine the Constitutional Validity of the Union laws. 

Such cases are debated by a majority of the full Constitutional Bench of seven Judges. 

(b) The independence of Judiciary (Supreme Court) has been ensured in our country in the following ways . 

1. The judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice and such other judges he may deem necessary. This ensures their independence. 

2. The Judges possess high qualifications in law; they have a long experience in this field; they are eminent jurists. This ensures their independence. 

3. The removal of a judge, which is done through impeachment, has been made very difficult, Impeachment is done by the Parliament on the basis of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity”. This requires simple majority of the total strength of both the Houses of the Parliament, and a 2/3rd majority of those present and voting in both Houses to pass a resolution of impeachment, 

(c) Advisory : The President may seek Supreme Court’s opinion or advice on a question of law or fact, which is of public importance in the opinion of the President, whether it has actually arisen or is likely to arise. The Supreme Court may give its opinion, after such hearing as it may think fit. It is done by a Bench of five Judges, by a majority vote. The opinion of the Supreme Court is pronounced in the open court. But the opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding on the President, as it is not a judicial decision or pronouncement. It is only a consultative view. It must be noted that the Supreme Court is also not bound to give its advisory opinion when a reference is made to it by the President. The Supreme Court can decline to give its opinion. Usually, its opinion is rejected by all courts and tribunals. 

Revisory : Judicial Review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine laws passed by the independent and the executive orders of the Centre and State governments in order to find whether these are in accordance with the Constitution or not. This is called Judicial Review. If an order or a law’ is found to be contrary to the Constitution, the Supreme Court declares it null and void.

2749.

Numerous causes gave rise to the First War of Independence and its consequences led to several changes in the British Government in India. In this context, answer the following : (a) Explain any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857.(b) Briefly explain the immediate cause of the Great Revolt.(c) State any four changes in the administration of the British Government as a consequence of the Revolt.

Answer»

(a) (i) Lord Dalhousie’s policy of annexation and the Doctrine of Lapse made the Indian rulers angry and insecure. 

The prominent states which fell victim to the Doctrine w’ere : Satara, Jhansi and Nagpur. 

(ii) Lord Canning declared that Bahadur Shah’s successor would not be allowed to use the imperial title, i.e. the ‘King’. 

(iii) Lord Dalhousie stopped the pension of Nana Saheb. 

(b) The immediate cause was the introduction of Enfield rifles. There was a rumour that, the cartridges to be used for the rifles were greased with the fat of cows and pigs. This sparked off the Mutiny. On 10th May, 1857 all the three sepoy regiments at Meerut rose in revolt. 

(c) (i) End of Company’s Rule : The Revolt ended the East India Company’s rule in India and the Indian empire came under the direct control of the British Crown. Queen Victoria became the Empress of India. 

(ii) Position of Secretary of State : The Act of 1858 abolished the Company’s Board of Control and the Court of Directors. All their powers were transferred to a Cabinet Minister, known as the Secretary of State. He was to be advised by a Council consisting of 15 members. 

(iii) Position of Governor-General: The designation of the Governor-General was changed. He was designated as the Viceroy while representing the British government in England. It was his duty to run the Indian administration on behalf of the Crown. He was under the control of the Secretary of State for India. 

(iv) Appointments to the Civil Service : It was decided that appointments to the Civil Service were to be made by open competition under rules made by the Secretary of State in Council.

2750.

How does aluminum react with the following:(a) Air, (b) Water, (c) Acid, (d) Base

Answer»

Reaction of aluminium:

(a) Air: Aluminium forms oxide at room temperature.

Aluminium powder burns in air at about 800°C forming its oxide and nitride with a bright light.

4Al + 3O2  2Al2O3

2Al + N2  2AlN

(b) Water: Water has no action on aluminium due to layer of oxide on it.

When steam is passed over pure heated aluminium, hydrogen is produced.

2Al +3H2O ⟶ Al2O3 +3H2

(c) Acid: It reacts with acids to produce salt and hydrogen.

2Al + 6HCl  2 AlCl3 +3H2

Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with metal to liberate hydrogen.

2Al + 3H2SO4 (dilute)  Al2(SO4)3 +3H2

Concentrated sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium to produce sulphur dioxide.

2Al + 6H2SO4 → Al2(SO4)3 +6H2O +3SO2

Dilute and concentrated nitric acid does not attack the metal aluminium.

(d) Base: Aluminium reacts with boiling and dilute alkalies to produce meta aluminate while with fused alkali produce aluminate.

2Al+ 2NaOH +2H2 2NaAlO2 +3H2

(Sodium meta aluminate)

2Al + 6NaOH  2Na3AlO3 + 3H2

(Sodium aluminate)