InterviewSolution
This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 451. |
Explain by giving examples that Multinational Corporations (MNCs) are spreading their productions in different ways. |
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Answer» Multinational Corporations are spreading their productions in different ways : (i) By setting up partnership with local companies. (ii) By placing orders with local companies. For example, garments, footwear, sports items, etc. (iii) By closely competing with the local companies. (iv) By buying local companies. To take an example, Cargill Foods, a very large American MNC has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh foods. Parakh Food had built a large marketing network in various parts of India, where its brand was well-reputed. |
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| 452. |
What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector secondary sector and the e tertiary sectors ? |
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Answer» Activities can be classified under the following three sectors on the basis of their nature of their products or materials used : (i) Primary Sector: Activities concerned with collecting or making available materials provided by nature are included in the primary sector. Some such activities are (a) Agriculture; (b) forestry; (c) animal husbandry; (d) poultry farming; (e) finishing and (f) mining. (ii) Secondary Sector: Such act ivies which transform raw materials or primary products into commodities more useful man are included in the secondary sector. Some such activities are (a) manufacturing and (b) quarrying. (iii) Tertiary Sector: This sector included those activities which are a must for running modern industries in a big way. Some such activities are (a) trade; (b) transport; (c) communication; (d) banking; (e) health; (f) education; (g) insurance; (h) tourism and (i) various other services . |
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| 453. |
Can consumption exceed income? If yes, what is the saving then? |
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Answer» Yes, when income is zero or less than subsistence level of consumption . Saving is –ve. |
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| 454. |
Measure the level of ex-ante aggregate demand when autonomous investment and consumption expenditure (A) is Rs 50 crores, and MPS is 0.2 and level of income (Y) is Rs 4000 crores. State whether the economy is in equilibrium or not (cite reasons). |
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Answer» Consumption expenditure (A) = Rs 50Crores |
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| 455. |
From the following table find out the level of output at which the producer will be in equilibrium (use marginal cost and marginal revenue approach). Give reasons for Your answerOutput (units)12345Total Revenue in Rs.1630425260Total Cost in Rs.1427394961 |
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Answer» The equilibrium level of output will be 4 units. This is because at this point the two conditions of equilibrium using (MR-MC approach) are met. This can be seen as follows: we are given. tire Total Revenue (TR) and Total Cost. From here, we can find Marginal Revenue (MR) and Marginal Cost (MC), as given in the following schedule :
First Condition: MR=MC=10 Second Condition: MC is rising from this point and meets MR from below. Thus, equilibrium output is 4 units.
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| 456. |
Complete the following table :Output(units)Total CostAverage Variable Costin Rs.Marginal Cost in Rs.Average ,Fixed cost in Rs.0301--2530278---3-23-104--23-5150--6 |
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Answer»
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| 457. |
Explain the problem of "for whom to produce". |
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Answer» What to produce and in what quantity: It is the problem of choosing which commodities should be produced and in what quantities. The goods can be consumer goods (like wheat, cloth, shoes, sugar, etc.), producer goods (like machine, tools, etc.), necessities (such as food, clothing, housing, etc.), luxuries (such as car, colour TV, refrigerator etc.). The society has to decide which goods should be produced in view of limited resources. The guiding principle is to allocate resources in a way that generates maximum aggregate utility. |
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| 458. |
Calculate (a) National Income, and (b) Net National Disposable Income:Rs. in crores(i) Compensation of ernployees2000(ii) Rent400(iii) Profit900(iv) Dividend100(v) Interest500(vi) Mixed income of self-employed7,000(vii) Net factor income to abroad50(viii) Net exports60(ix) Net indirect taxes300(x) Depreciation150(xi) Net current transfers to abroad30 |
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Answer» National Income or NNPFC = Compensation of Employees + Rent + Profit + Interest + Mixed income of self-employed - Net Factor Income to Abroad NNPFC = 2000 + 400 + 900 + 500 + 7000-50 NNPFC =10,750 (b) Net National Disposable Income = NNPFC + Net Indirect Thxes - Net current transfers to abroad Net Nationai Disposable Income = 1,0,750 + 300-30 =Rs.11,020 |
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| 459. |
Write a reaction of glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain structure. |
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Answer» D-glucose does not explain following reactions by its open chain structure.
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| 460. |
The adjoining figure represents a rectangular lawn with a circular flower bed in the middle. Find: (i) the area of the whole land. (ii) the area of the flower bed.(iii) the area of the lawn excluding the area of the flower bed. (iv) the circumference of the flower bed. |
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Answer» Length of rectangular lawn = 10 m, breadth of the rectangular lawn = 5 m And radius of the circular flower bed = 2 m (i) Area of the whole land = length x breadth = 10 x 5 = 50 m2 (ii) Area of flower bed = πr 2 = 3.14 x 2 x 2 = 12.56 m2 (iii) Area of lawn excluding the area of the flower bed = area of lawn – area of flower bed = 50 – 12.56 = 37.44 m2 (iv) The circumference of the flower bed = 2πr = 2 x 3.14 x 2 = 12.56 m |
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| 461. |
Pragya wrapped a cord around a circular pipe of radius 4 cm (adjoining figure) and cut off the length required of the cord. Then she wrapped it around a square box of side 4 cm (also shown). Did she have any cord left? [Take π =3.14] |
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Answer» Radius of pipe = 4 cm Wrapping cord around circular pipe = 2πr = 2 x 3.14 x 4 = 25.12 cm Again, wrapping cord around a square = 4 x side = 4 x 4 = 16 cm Remaining cord = Cord wrapped on pipe – Cord wrapped on square = 25.12 – 16 = 9.12 cm Thus, she has left 9.12 cm cord. |
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| 462. |
In a city, 30% are females, 40% are males and remaining are children. What percent are children? |
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Answer» Given: Percentage of females = 30% Percentage of males = 40% Total percentage of females and males = 30 + 40 = 70% Percentage of children = Total percentage – Percentage of males and females = 100% – 70% = 30% |
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| 463. |
What is credit ? How does credit play a vital and positive role ? Explain with an example. |
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Answer» ‘Credit’ refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment. Credit plays a vital and positive role as : (i) Credit helps people from all walks of life in setting up their business, increase their income and support their families. (ii) To some people loan helps a lot in constructing their houses and get relief from monthly rent. (iii) To others it helps a lot in raising their standards. (iv) Example of Salim : If Salim borrows some money from the bank, he can invest it in his business. This will increase his inventory and an increase in turnover. This increased turnover will generate more earning for him. |
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| 464. |
‘Credit has its own unique role for development’. justify the statements with argument. |
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Answer» Credit has its own unique role for development because of following reasons (a) Credit helps to increase earning and therefore a person is better off than before. (b) Credit helps to earn money as well as the capital for the future. (c) Credit helps in the development of infrastructure of the society that leads to the overall development. |
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| 465. |
What is credit ? How does credit play a vital and positive role ? Explain with an example |
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Answer» ‘Credit’ refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment. |
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| 466. |
Evaluate the consequences of declaration of Emergency in 1975? |
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Answer» 1. It affected civil liberties of peoples i.e. in April 1976 it was proved that the government could take away citizens’ right to life and liberty by overruling of High Courts under Supreme Court and accepted government’s plea. 2. The 42nd Amendment was also passed to bring a series of changes in the Constitution. 3. It affected the functioning of mass media also as press censorship took place which banned freedom of press and newspapers, which were supposed to prior approval before they publish any material. 4. Despite of filing many petitions government claimed it not to be necessary to be informed on the grounds to arrested persons. |
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| 467. |
When was the Bharatiya Jana Sangh formed? How was it different from other political parties? |
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Answer» The Bharatiya Jana Sangh was established in 1951 under the leadership of Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. Its can be traced back to the Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) and the Hindu Mahasabha before Independence. The Jana Sangh was different from other parties in terms of ideology and programmes. 1. It emphasised the idea of one country, one culture and one nation and believed that the country could become modern, progressive and strong on the basis of Indian culture and traditions. The party called for a reunion of India and Pakistan in Akhand Bharat. 2. The party was in forefront of the agitation to replace English with Hindi as the official language of India and was also opposed to the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities. 3. The party was a consistent advocate of India developing nuclear weapons especially after China carried out its atomic tests in 1964. In the 1950s Jana Sangh remained on the margins of the electoral politics and was able to secure only 3 seats in 1952 Lok Sabha elections and 4 seats in 1952 Lok Sabha elections. In the early years, its support came mainly from the urban areas in the Hindi speaking states like Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Delhi and Uttar Pradesh. The notable leaders of the Jana Sangh were Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya and Balraj Madhok. The Bharatiya Janata Party traces its roots to the Bharatiya Jana Sangh. |
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| 468. |
Analyse the circumstances responsible for the declaration of a state of emergency in India on 25 June, 1975. |
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Answer» The condition of India was not good due to the following reasons laid down by the government for the imposition of Emergency. 1. Opposition parties were not allowing the ruling party to rule the country democratically. 2. Fragment agitations, protests and collective action were not good for democracy. 3. Continuous extra-parliamentary politics targeting the government was bad for democracy. 4. The internal disturbance leads to instability and distracts the administration from its routine task of ensuring development. 5. The government diverts all energies for the maintenance of law and order, and as a result, development is not taken care of. 6. Indira Gandhi claimed that subversive forces were trying to obstruct the government’s progressive policies and were attempting to dislodge her from power through extra¬constitutional means. The Congress said that there was an ‘international conspiracy against the unity of India’. |
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| 469. |
Analyse any three lessons learnt from the Emergency of 1975. |
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Answer» 1. The Emergency of 1975 at once brought out both the weaknesses and the strengths of India’s democracy. Though there are many observers who think that India ceased to be democratic during the Emergency, it is noteworthy that normal democratic functioning resumed within a short span of time. Thus, one lesson of Emergency is that it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India. 2. It brought out some ambiguities regarding the emergency provision in the Constitution that have been rectified since. Now internal emergency’ can be proclaimed only on the grounds of ‘armed rebellion’ and it is necessary that the advice to the President to proclaim Emergency must be given in writing by the Council of Ministers. 3. The Emergency made everyone aware of the value of civil liberties. The courts, too, have taken an active role after the Emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the t individuals. This is in response to the inability of the judiciary to protect civil liberties effectively during the Emergency. Many civil liberties organizations came up after this experience. |
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| 470. |
Correct and rewrite the statement----- Ravi, Beas river dispute was resolved between Himachal Pradesh, Punjab and Uttarakhand. |
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Answer» Ravi, Beas river dispute was resolved between Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. |
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| 471. |
Why is it said that directing takes place where ever superior-subordinate relationship exists ? |
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Answer» Directing takes place wherever superior-subordinate relationship exists. It is so because directing is pervasive and is required at every level. |
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| 472. |
To fulfill the social needs of elderly, a ideal old age home should have: a. Medical and health care facilities b. Nutritious meals c. Safety and security d. Company of own age |
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Answer» Correct option (d) Company of own age |
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| 473. |
“The old age needs special care.” Justify the statement with the help of one example. |
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Answer» The old age needs special care because: 1. It is a period of decline 2. Risk of many health problems 3. Need for safety 4. Inactive 5. Physically weak |
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| 474. |
“The old age needs special care.” Justify this statement with the help of one example. |
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Answer» The old age needs special care because 1. It is a period of decline 2. Risk of many health problems 3. Need for safety 4. Inactive 5. Physically weak |
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| 475. |
Examine whether the following statement pattern is tautology, contradiction or contingency : p ∨ – (p ∧ q). |
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Answer» We make the truth table as follows
So the final statement is always true. So it is a tautology. |
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| 476. |
A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times the radius of curvature of either surface. Calculate the refractive index of lens material. |
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Answer» 1/f = (n - 1) (1/R1 - 1/R2) For biconvex lens R1 = + R, R2 = - R Given f = 2/3R ∴ 3/2R = (n -1) (2/R) => (n -1) = 3/4 => n = 1 + 3/4 = 7/4 |
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| 477. |
A carton of 24 bulbs contain 6 defective bulbs. One bulb is drawn at random. What is the probability that the bulb is not defective? If the bulb selected is defective and it is not replaced and a second bulb is selected at random from the rest, what is the probability that the second bulb is defective? |
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Answer» There are 6 defective bulbs out of 24 bulbs ∴ Probability that the bulb is not defective =18/24=3/4 When the selected bulb is defective and not replaced, then ∴ Probability that the second bulb is defective =5/23 |
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| 478. |
Suppose we throw a die once. (i) What is the probability of getting a number greater than 4? (ii) What is the probability of getting a number less than or equal to 4? |
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Answer» (i) Here, let E be the event ‘getting a number greater than 4’. The number of possible outcomes are six : 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6, and the outcomes favourable to are 5 and 6. Therefore, the number of outcomes favourable to E is 2. So, P(E) = P (number greater than 4) = 2/6=1/3 (ii) Let F be the event ‘getting a number less than or equal to 4’. Therefore, P(F) =4/6=2/3 |
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| 479. |
‘Buy one get one free’ is printed on the label of the package of a mosquito repellant. State the labelling function being performed by this statement. |
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Answer» Labelling function performed is : Helps in Promotion of products’ as labelling plays an important role in sales promotional schemes launched by companies. |
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| 480. |
Give the constitution of the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. |
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Answer» District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum constitutes of one President and two other members, one of whom should be a woman. |
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| 481. |
Give the constitution of the District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. |
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Answer» District Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum consists of a President and two members appointed by the state government. One of the members should be a woman. |
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| 482. |
AM is a median of a triangle ABC. Is AB + BC + CA > 2AM ? (Consider the sides of triangles Δ ABM and Δ AMC.) |
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Answer» Since, the sum of lengths of any two sides in a triangle should be greater than the length of third side. Therefore, In ΔABM, AB + BM > AM ……….(i) In ΔAMC, AC + MC > AM ……….(ii) ⇒ AB + AC + (BM + MC) > 2AM ⇒ AB + AC + BC > 2AM Hence, it is true. |
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| 483. |
In the block diagram of a simple modulator for obtaining an AM signal, shown in the figure, identify the boxes A and B. Write their functions. |
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Answer» Boxes ‘A’ and ‘B’ represents (i) square law device (ii) band pass filter (i) Square law device is a non linear device and produces the output y(t) =Bx (t) +Cx(t)2 where B and C are constants. (ii) It rejects dc and sinusoids of frequencies ωm, 2ωm and 2ωc and finally produces amplitude modulated wave by retaining frequncies ωc, ωc – ωm and ωc + ωm. |
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| 484. |
What is short circuiting? List two precautions to prevent it. What is the colour of insulation of earth wire? State its function in a domestic circuit and explain how earthing of an electric appliance saves the user from a severe electric shock. |
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Answer» When current in an electric circuit abruptly rises due to some default in the circuit, it is called short – circuiting. Two precautions to Prevent it are: |
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| 485. |
The closed loop (PQRS) of wire is moved into a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the plane of the paper as shown in the figure. Predict the direction of the induced current in the loop. |
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Answer» By Lenz’s law, the direction of induced current is such that it opposes its own cause of production. The induced current opposes the increase in magnetic flux. Hence the direction of induced current is PSRQP (anticlockwise). |
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| 486. |
What is the programme called that is involved in improving success rate of production of desired hybrid and herd size of cattle? |
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Answer» Multiple ovulation embryo transfer method/MOET. |
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| 487. |
Find out reasons for the low proportion of Net Sown Area in these states (Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman, and Nicobar). |
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Answer» Net sown area in Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Manipur is low mainly due to the hilly and rocky terrain. They are also largely covered by dense forests, which will need to be cut to develop agriculture. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are covered by dense tropical forests and so net sown area is low. |
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| 488. |
In a fission event of \(^{238}_{92}\,U\) by fast moving neutrons, no neutrons are emitted and final products, after the beta decay of the primary fragments, are \(_ {58}^{140}Ce\) and \(^{99}_{44}Ru\) . Calculate Q for this process. Neglect the masses of electrons / positrons emitted during the intermediate steps.GIven: \(m\left(^{238}_{92}U\right) = 238.05079u;\,m\left(^{140}_{58}Ce=139.90543u\right)\)\(m\left(^{99}_{44}Ru\right)= 98.90594;\, m\left(^1_0n\right) = 1.008665u\) |
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Answer» \(^{238}_{92}U +\, ^1_0n \longrightarrow \,^{140}_{58}Ce+\,^{99}_{44}Ru\) Then Q value \(Q = \left[m\left(^{238}_{92}U\right)+\,m\left(^1_0n\right) - m\left(^{140}_{58}Ce\right)-m\left(^{99}_{44}Ru\right)\right]\times931.5\) Q = [238.05079 + 1.008665 - 139.90843 - 98.90594] x 931.5 Q = [239.059455 - 238.81137] x 931.5 Q = 0.248085 x 931.5 Q = 231.09 MeV |
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| 489. |
If the applied voltage (V) across both the resistors R1 and R2 is same but R1 > R2 then what would be the ammeter readings in A1 and A2 ? A1 < A2 or A1 > A2. |
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Answer» A1 < A2. Reason : In parallel combination, current depends on resistance, I ∝ 1/R i.e., more will be the resistance, less is the current. |
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| 490. |
Explain the impact of removal of thymus gland on the immune system of a human body. |
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Answer» The thymus provides micro-environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. The T-cells themselves do not secrete antibodies but, they help B cells produce them. Therefore, the immunity will be reduced. |
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| 491. |
Many microbial pathogens enter the gut of humans along with food. Name the physiological barrier that protects the body from such pathogens. |
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Answer» Physiological barriers : Acid in the stomach and saliva in the mouth. |
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| 492. |
Explain the process of fertilisation in human female, and trace the post-fertilisation events in a sequential order up to implantation of the embryo. |
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Answer» Fertilisation (i) The process of fusion of a sperm (male gamete) with an ovum (female gamete) is called fertilisation. (ii) During coitus, semen is released by the penis into the vagina (insemination). (iii) The motile sperms swim rapidly, through the cervix, enter into the uterus and reach the ampullary–isthmic junction of the oviduct. (iv) A sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum and induces changes in the membrane to block the entry of additional sperms. (v) The enzymes of the acrosome of sperm help to dissolve zona pellucida and plasma membrane of the ovum and sperm head is allowed to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum, i.e., secondary oocyte. (vi) Ultimately diploid zygote is produced by the fusion of a sperm and an ovum. Implantation (i) Zygote divides rapidly by mitotic division called cleavage and as a result 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells are produced which are termed as blastomeres. (ii) Embryo with 8–16 blastomeres is called a morula. (iii) The morula changes into a large mass of cells called blastocyst which passes further into the uterus. (iv) Blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called inner cell mass. (v) The trophoblast layer gets attached to the cells of the endometrium and the inner cell mass gives rise to the embryo. (vi) The cells of endometrium divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst. (vii) So, the blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus called implantation leading to pregnancy. |
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| 493. |
Read the passage given below and answer the questions / complete the sentences that follow: In India, as perhaps in many other countries of the world, trees have been held in veneration since ancient times. Our rishis of yore retired to forests to meditate and to do penance amidst trees and “far from the madding crowd”. Our forbears loved trees and forests so much so that, they even deified and worshipped them as abodes of Vrikshadevata and Vanadevata. Many of them were not cut without good reason. In ancient India, groves of trees and flower gardens were reared with loving care. In ancient Sanskrit literature, there are many references of young maidens kicking the Ashoka tree to make it flower. But in fact, the kick can be administered by anyone. The method seems to work, though nobody really knows why? Some say the kick interrupts the flow of water upwards, triggering a defence mechanism which causes the tree to flower. In Western countries people beat their walnut trees to encourage them to bear fruit. It is believed that a good beating ensures a good crop of walnuts. Like the Ashoka, the Walnut too is a tall tree. Perhaps all tall trees benefit occasionally from a beating sound. In parts of Uttar Pradesh, they resort to another stratagem to get mango trees to flower. If a tree has not given fruit in a particular year, the owner, accompanied by three or four friends, walks menacingly towards it with an axe and loudly announces his intention of cutting down the tree. His friends persuade him not to do so. When he has gone they berate the tree for not giving fruit and advise it to give plenty of fruit the next time if it wants to live. The method is said to give good results. Answer the following questions briefly :(a) Why did our rishis retire to forests? (b) Who are referred to Vrikshadevata and Vanadevata in the passage? (c) Why are walnut trees beaten in Western countries? (d) In ancient times young maidens used to kick the Ashoka tree when it . (e) In Uttar Pradesh mango trees are caused to flower by .(f) According to some people kicking the upwards flow of water. (g) The Ashoka is a. (h) The word ’menacingly’ means. |
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Answer» (a) Our rishis retired to forests to meditate and to do penance. (b) The trees are referred to ’Vrikshadevata’ and ’Vanadevata’ in the passage. (c) In western countries walnut trees are beaten to encourage them to bear fruits. (d) didn’t flower. (e) advising it to give plenty of fruit the next time if it wants to live. (f) Interrupts (g) tall tree (h) threateningly. |
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| 494. |
Explain the role (s) of the following in Biotechnology :(a) Restriction endonuclease(b) Gel - electrophoresis(c) Selectable markers in pBR322. |
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Answer» (a) Restriction endonuclease: These are enzymes that make cuts at specific positions within the DNA. They bind to their specific recognition sequence and cut each of the two strands of the double helix at specific points in their sugar-phosphate backbones. They are used in biotechnology to form recombinant molecules, which are composed of PNR from different sources. To insert a foreign DNA into an intact DNA, it must be cut from its source and the intact DNA also must be cut open. Both these Processes are carried by using the same restriction endonucleases. (b) Gel electrophoresis: It is a technique that allows us to separate DNA fragments on the basis of their size. In this technique, the negatively charged DNA fragments are forced to move under an electric field through a medium or matrix. all the DNA fragments thus move towards anode and get separated according to their size through sieving effect provided by the agarose gel. The DNA of desired length can then be isolated and used in constructing recombinant DNA by joining them with cloning vectors. (c) pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes, one for ampicillin and other one for tetracycline. Antibiotic resistance serves as selectable marker. If the foreign DNA is ligated at the site of tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322 vecto, the recombinant plasmid will lose tetracycline resistance due to insertion of foreign DNA but can still be selected out from non-recombinants by plating the transformants on ampicillin-containing medium. The transformants growing on ampicillin containing medium are then transferred on a medium containing tetracycline. The recombinants will grow in ampicillin containing medium but not on the tetracycline-containing medium. However, the non-recombinants will grow on both. Thus by using antibiotic resistant genes as selectable markers, we can differentiate between recombinants and non- recombinants |
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| 495. |
'For a viable venture to be born, an entrepreneur is required to apply his knowledge, skill, competencies and creativity strategically to market'. Identify the requirement to be complied with by these factors for successful processing of an idea into opportunity. |
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Answer» Strategic Positioning. |
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| 496. |
Sindhu Ayurved Ltd, a new and leading manufacturer of herbal and ayurvedic medicines and grocery products has captured a large share of the market in a short span of time. The Research and Development (R&D) department of the company spends considerable time and effort in developing eco-friendly, chemical free and healthy alternatives for a variety of products of daily use, like toothpaste, biscuits, noodles, soaps, shampoos and detergents etc. Their business orientation differs from competitors who are short sighted and serve only consumer’s needs. Instead Sindhu Ayurved Ltd.considers larger issues of long term social welfare, paying attention to social, ethical and ecological aspects of marketing.(i) Identify and explain the marketing management philosophy adopted by Sindhu Ayurved Ltd.(ii) State any two values that are being promoted by the company. |
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Answer» (i) Societal marketing philosophy .It is the extension of the marketing concept as it supplements the concern for the long-term welfare of the society. |
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| 497. |
Mr. Murthy is the Human Resource Manager of Jai Hind Hospital in Vellore. He has to appoint nurses for the hospital. Since patients in the hospital are of different types, he wants to find out the candidates’ maturity and emotions in dealing with the patients. He also wants to know about the candidates’ ability to make decisions. Explain two types of tests that Mr. Murthy can use to meet his requirements. |
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Answer» Two types of tests that Mr Murthy can use to meet his requirements are: |
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| 498. |
Mr. Raman is the human resource manager of Shanti Hospital in Nellore. He has to appoint nurses for the hospital. For this he has conducted preliminary interviews. Since patients in the hospital are of different types, he has also conducted tests to find out the candidates’ maturity and emotions in dealing with the patients. He has also conducted tests to know about the candidates’ ability to take decisions. Explain the remaining steps that Mr. Raman should take to complete the selection process. |
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Answer» Remaining steps that Mr. Raman should take to complete the selection process are: |
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| 499. |
Mr. Murthy is the Human Resource Manager of Jai Hind Hospital in Vellore. He has to appoint nurses for the hospital. Since patients in the hospital are of different types, he wants to find out the candidates’ maturity and emotions in dealing with the patients. He also wants to know about the candidates’ ability to take decisions. Explain two types of tests that Mr. Murthy can use to meet his requirements. |
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Answer» Following are the tests that Mr Murthy can use to meet his requirements : 1. Intelligence test – An intelligence test is a test which is used to judge the level of intelligence quotient of an applicant i.e., mental capacity. An intelligence test measures the applicant’s ability to understand the instructions, to access the learning ability and to make decisions and judgments. 2. Personality test – A personality test is a test which is used to measure the person’s overall personality and qualities. Personality test measures applicant’s value system, his emotional reactions, maturity etc. |
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| 500. |
Mr. Murthy is the Human Resource Manager of Jai Hind Hospital in Vellore. He has to appoint nurses for the hospital. Since patients in the hospital are of different types, he wants to find out the candidates’ maturity and emotions in dealing with the patients. He also wants to know about the candidates’ ability to make decisions. Explain two types of tests that Mr. Murthy can use to meet his requirements. |
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Answer» Two types of tests that Mr Murthy can use to meet his requirements are: |
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