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8851.

Describe the origin of Socialist Party.

Answer»

The roots of the Socialist Party can be traced back to the mass movement stage of the Indian National Congress in the pre-independence era. The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formed within the Congress in 1934 by a group of leaders like Lohia, Narendra Dev, who wanted a more radical and egalitarian Congress. In 1948, the Congress amended its party constitution, forced the socialists to form a separate Socialist Party. The socialists believed in the ideology of democratic socialism. They condemned the Congress for the pro-capitalists and pro-landlords and for ignoring the workers and the peasants. The Socialists Party went through many splits and reunions leading to the formation of many socialists parties. These included Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party, Jayaprakash Narayan. S.M. Joshi were among the leaders of the socialist parties.

8852.

What do you understand by factions in a coalition?

Answer»

The congress had a nature of coalition. If a group was not happy with the position of the party or with its share of power, it would remain inside the party and fight the other groups rather than leaving the party and becoming an opposition. These groups inside a party are called factions.

8853.

State any two ideologies of the Swatantra Party.

Answer»

The Swatantra Party was founded by Senior Congress leader C. Rajagopalachari in August 1959.

(i) The party believed that prosperity could come only through individual freedom.

(ii) This party was against land ceilings in agriculture and opposed to cooperative farming.

8854.

Explain the major difference between the ideologies of the Congress and Bharatiya Jana Sangh.

Answer»

The major difference between their ideologies was that Bharatiya Jana Sangh emphasised on one country, one culture, one nation, i.e., a Hindu nation or Hindutva, whereas Congress formed ideological and social coalitions accommodating social diversities.

8855.

If Bharatiya Jana Sangh of the Communist Party of India had formed the government after the first election, in which respects would the policies of the government have been different? Specify three differences each for both the parties.

Answer»

Communist Party of India:

— It would have worked for proportional representation in the government. — This party would have followed communist ideology in various policies. — It must have emphasised on a control over electronic mass media by an autonomous body or corporation.

Bharatiya Jana Sangh:

— It would have replaced the secular concept by the ideology of one country, one culture and one nation. — Indian culture and traditions would have been given a preference as this party opposed the granting of concessions to religious and cultural minorities. — It focused on the re-unity if India and Pakistan under the concept of Akhand Bharat.

8856.

Which member of Bharatiya Jana Sangh was a minister in the first cabinet of Nehru? When and why did he resign?

Answer»

Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, a member of Bharatiya Jana Sangh, was a minister in the first cabinet of Nehru. He resigned from his post in 1950 following his ideological differences over the issue of relationship with Pakistan. He believed that India and Pakistan should be reunited as Akhand Bharat.

8857.

Why did the magazines such as ‘Seminar’ or ‘Mainstream’ close down after the declaration of Emergency in 1975?

Answer»

The magazines closed down due to the censorship of the press.

8858.

State whether the following statements regarding the Emergency are correct or incorrect. (a) It was declared in 1975 by Indira Gandhi. (b) It led to the suspension of all fundamental rights. (c) It was proclaimed due to the deteriorating economic conditions. (d) Many Opposition leaders were arrested during the emergency. (e) CPI supported the proclamation of the Emergency.

Answer»

(a) Correct 

(b) Correct 

(c) Wrong

(d) Correct 

(e) Correct.

8859.

Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions: There were many acts of dissent and resistance to the Emergency. Many political workers who were not arrested in the first wave, went ‘underground’ and organised protests against the government. Newspapers like the Indian Express and the Statesman protested against censorship by leaving blank spaces where news items had been censored. Magazines like the Seminar and the Mainstream chose to close down rather than submit to censorship. Many journalists were arrested for writing against the Emergency. Many underground newsletters and leaflets were published to bypass censorship. Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth, awarded with Padma Bhushan, and Hindi writer Fanishwarnath Renu, awarded with Padma Shri, returned their awards in protest against the suspension of democracy. By and large, though, such open acts of defiance and resistance were rare. 1. Why did people began to protest against government? 2. How did newspapers protest against censorship? 3. How did writers protest against the emergency? 4. Which magazines protested against censorship?

Answer»

1. Against imposition of emergency. 

2. A newspaper like Indian Express and the Statesman protested against censorship by leaving blank spaces where news items had been censored. 

3. Kannada writer Shivarama Karanth awarded with Padma Bhushan and Hindi writer Fanishwarnath Renu awarded with Padma Shri returned their awards in protest against the suspension of democracy. 

4. Magazines like ‘Seminar’ and ‘Mainstream’ chose to close down rather than submit to censorship.

8860.

Analyse any three lessons learnt from the emergency of 1975.

Answer»

(i) The emergency of 1975 at once brought out both the weaknesses’ and the strengths of India’s democracy. Though there are many observers who think that India ceased to be democratic during the emergency, it is noteworthy that normal democratic functioning resumed within a short span of time. Thus, one lesson of Emergency is that it is extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India. 

(ii) It brought out some ambiguities regarding the emergency provision in the constitution that has been rectified since. Now ‘internal’ emergency can be proclaimed only on the grounds of ‘armed rebellion’ and it is necessary that the advice to the President to proclaim emergency must be given in writing by the Council of Ministers. 

(iii) The Emergency made everyone aware of the value of civil liberties. The courts, too, have taken an active role after the emergency in protecting the civil liberties of the individuals. This is in response to the inability of the judiciary to protect civil liberties effectively during the emergency. Many civil liberties organizations came up after this experience.

8861.

Examine any six reasons for the imposition of emergency in India in 1975.

Answer»

(i) The emergency was proclaimed in response to a petition filed by Raj Narayan to declare Indira Gandhi’s election invalid. 

(ii) On June 25, 1975, the government declared the threat of internal disturbances to invoke Article 352 of a constitution. 

(iii) Article 352 can declare the emergency on the ground of either internal or external disturbances. 

(iv) The government decided a grave crisis to be arisen to proclaim emergency to bring law and order, restore efficiency and implement pro-poor Welfare Programmes. 

(v) The President FakhruddinAli Ahmad proclaimed emergency which became the most controversial episode in Indian politics. 

(vi) Power politics became personalized and governmental authority was converted into personalization.

8862.

Examine the three consequences of emergency imposed in 1975.

Answer»

(a) Effects on Civil Liberties of Citizens: 

1. The government made large-scale arrests under preventive detention. 

2. Arrested political persons could not challenge arrest even under Habeas Corpus petition. 

3. Despite filing many petitions government claimed it not to be necessary to be informed of grounds to arrested persons. 

4. In April 1976, finally, it was proved that the government could be taken away citizen’s right to life and liberty by overruling of high courts under supreme court and accepted the government’s plea. 

(b) Impact on Relationship between Parliament and Judiciary: 

1. The parliament brought in many new changes in a constitution which made an amendment declaring that election of Prime Minister, President and Vice-president could not be challenged in the court. 

2. The forty-second amendment (42nd) was also passed to bring a series of changes in the constitution like duration of legislatures, elections can be postponed by one year during an emergency. 

(c) Functioning of Mass Media: 

1. Press censorship took place which banned freedom of the press is newspapers were supposed to seek prior approval before they publish any material. 

2. Protests, strikes, and public agitations were also banned. 

3. Various fundamental rights were also suspended including even Right to move to Court for Restoration of Fundamental Rights. 

4. Kannada writer Shivarama Karnata awarded with Padma Bhushan and Hindi writer Fanishwarnath Renu with Padmashri returned their awards on the protest against the suspension of democracy.

5. Newspapers mainly Indian Express and the Statesman protested against censorship by leaving blank editorial column.

8863.

Explain any two lessons learnt from emergency imposed in 1975.

Answer»

The emergency brought out weaknesses and strengths both to India’s democracy: 

1. The first lesson was felt that it was extremely difficult to do away with democracy in India. 

2. Secondly, it amended that internal emergency could be proclaimed only on the grounds of armed rebellion, on the advice of the president to proclaim emergency must be given in writing by the council of ministers. 

3. Thirdly, emergency made everyone more aware of civil liberties as well as courts also took an active role in protecting the civil liberties of individuals.

8864.

Consider the following statements. Tick (V) the appropriate answer1. Indian Citizen of a person can be terminated if I. a person voluntarily acquires the citizenship of some other country. II. a person who has become a citizen through registration. III. the Government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud. IV. a citizen who is by birth indulges in trade with an enemy country during war. (a) I and II are correct. (b) I and III are correct (c) I, III, IV are correct. (d) I, II, III are correct.

Answer»

(b) I and III are correct

8865.

On what grounds that the citizenship of a person is cancelled?

Answer»

1. Renunciation: (is a voluntary act) when a person after acquiring the citizenship of another country gives up his/her Indian citizenship.

2. Termination: (takes place by operation of law) When an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country; he/she automatically ceases to be an Indian citizen.

3. Deprivation: (is a compulsory termination) The citizenship is deprived on the basis of an order of the Government of India in cases involving acquisition of Indian citizenship by fraud, false representation or being disloyal to the Constitution.

8866.

Define Nationality.

Answer»

Nationality is the status of belonging to a particular nation by origin, birth basically, it’s an ethnic and racial concept. Nationality of a person cannot be changed.

8867.

What does the term ‘Alien’ refer to?

Answer»

Alien refers to all non-citizens or non – nationals residing in a country.eg. tourists, foreign students.

8868.

Hold a debate in the class between those who agree with conservatism and those who agree with liberal democracy on what is best for the welfare and development of people in Europe or in India.

Answer»

Conservatism means supporting monarchy. The conservatives wanted to protect traditional institutions of state and society like the monarchy, the church, social hierarchies, property and family. They supported the modernisation initiated by Napoleon.

In monarchy, the king is the final. It he is good administrator, the people under him will be benefited. Otherwise they will suffer a lot.

Liberal democracy means the representative of the people rules the country for the will and wish of the people only. Without the concern of the people, he may not have whole right to take any action. The people have the power to remove him from the power when he goes wrong. Hence the government itself is people’s. Thus, democracy is the best form of government.

8869.

When is citizenship granted to an individual by the Government?

Answer»

Citizenship is granted to an individual by the government of the country when he/ she complies with the legal formalities. Citizenship can be changed.

8870.

Consider the following statements. Tick (V) the appropriate answer:  A person acquires citizenship by Registration, if (i) He is of Indian Origin who is ordinarily resident in any country or place outside India. (ii) He is of Indian Origin who is ordinarily resident in India for five years before applying for registration. (iii) He marries a citizen of India and is ordinarily resident in India for seven years before applying for registration.(a) i and ii are correct (b) ii and iii are correct(c) i is correct (d) i and iii are correct

Answer»

(d) i and iii are correct

8871.

……. of the Constitution of India deals with the Citizenship.(a) Part II (b) Part II Article 5 – 11 (c) Part II Article 5 – 6 (d) Part I Article 5 – 11

Answer»

(b) Part II Article 5 – 11

8872.

What are the Rights that a citizen can enjoy in our country?

Answer»

1. Fundamental Rights

2. Right to vote in the election to the Lok Sabha and the State Legislature 

3. Right to hold certain public offices 

4. Right to become the Member of Parliament and State Legislature.

8873.

Write a note on the Overseas citizenship of India.

Answer»

1. Non – Resident Indian: An Indian citizen who is residing outside India and holds an Indian passport. 

2. Person on Indian Origin: A person whose any ancestors was an Indian nationals and who is presently holding another country’s citizenship.(other than Pakistan, Bangaladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan,Afghanistan. China and Nepal). The PIO scheme was rescinded w.e.f. 09-01-2015

3. Overseas Citizen of India Card Holder: It is an immigration status permitting a foreign citizen of Indian origin to live and work in the Republic of India indefinitely. (Except the citizen of Pakistan and Bangladesh). There are no voting rights for an OCI card holder

8874.

According to ……………. amendment of our constitution a set of Fundamental duties are prescribed.(a) 55 (b) 51 (c) 42 (d) 32

Answer»

According to 42 amendment of our constitution a set of Fundamental duties are prescribed.

8875.

What is Global citizenship?

Answer»

Global citizenship is an idea that everyone, no matter where they live is part of a worldwide community rather than as the citizen of particular nation or place. Enabling young people to access and participate in shaping modem society

8876.

A citizen of any country, who renounces the citizenship of that country, becomes an Indian citizen by ………(a) Descent (b) Naturalisation (c) Registration (d) Incorporation of territory

Answer»

(b) Naturalisation

8877.

International Biodiversity Day is celebrated on which date?(a) 21 May(b) 23 May(c) 22 May(d) 24 th May

Answer»

Correct answer is (c) 22 May

8878.

Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.

Answer»

The important multipurpose project of Tamil Nadu are:

1. Mettur Dam – River Cauvery – Mettur (Salem) 

2. Bhavani Sagar Dam – Bhavani – Erode 

3. Amaravathi Dam – Amaravathi – Udumalpet (Tirupur) 

4. Krishnagiri Dam – Cauvery – Krishnagiri 

5. Sathanur Dam – Then Pennai – Chengam 

6. Mullai Periyar – Periyar – Tamil Nadu, Kerala Border fix) Vaigai Dam – Vaigai – Andipatti (Theni) 

7. Manimuthar Dam – manimuthar – Tirunelveli 

8. Papanasam Dam – Karaiyar – Tirunelveli 

9. Parambikulam Aliyar – Aliyar and Parambikulam – Joint venture of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.

8879.

What is MRTS?

Answer»

MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

8880.

Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are: (a) 3 and 15 (b) 4 and 15 (c) 3 and 16 (d) 4 and 15

Answer»

(a) 3 and 15

8881.

The delta which is known as Granary of South India is: (a) Cauvery delta (b) Mahanadi delta (c) Godavari delta (d) Krishna delta

Answer»

(a) Cauvery delta

8882.

Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is: (a) 80.32% (b) 62.33% (c) 73.45% (d) 80.33%

Answer»

Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is 80.33%.

8883.

List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.

Answer»

Airports: Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchiraplli.

Sea ports: Three major sea ports – Chennai, Ennore, Tuticorin. An intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 51 minor ports are there in Tamil Nadu.

8884.

Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is …… (a) Pulses(b) Millets (c) Oilseeds (d) Rice

Answer»

Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is Millets.

8885.

…….. is one of the biggest Earthen dams in the country. (a) Mullai Periyar Dam (b) Bhavani Sagar Dam (c) Mettur Dam(d) Sathanur Dam

Answer»

(b) Bhavani Sagar Dam

8886.

…….. is the major oil seed of the Tamil Nadu state. (a) Coconut (b) Ground nut (c) Sunflower (d) Gingelly

Answer»

(b) Ground nut

8887.

Distinguish between the Marine Fishing and inland fishing.

Answer»

Marine Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in ocean and sea in shore fishing and off shore fishing.

2. Fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, cat fish, silver bellies and crabs. 

3. Large mechanised boats are used. 

4. Chennai, Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram are the major area

Inland Fishing:

1. Fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps. 

2. Carp, Tilapia, Barbus, Rohu, catla and mrigal are caught. Oyster and prawns are cultured in nurseries. 

3. Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used. 

4. Vellore leads in inland fishing production followed by Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts.

8888.

Distinguish between the Surface water and groundwater.

Answer»

Surface Water: 

1. Water available on the surface of the earth in lakes, ponds, rivers, stream, reservoirs etc., 

2. The surface water is put in to various uses like drinking, for hydelpower, irrigation etc. 

3. Availability depend upon the rainfall nature of soil, land form temperature etc. 

4. Not reliable 

5. May be polluted and contaminated by the external forces.

Ground Water:

1. Water found underground at deep in large aquifers (porous rock layers) by seeping the soil. 

2. Water has to be pumped out by drilling a deep well. 

3. Availability depend upon the nature of absorption by the aqueous layer of rocks. 

4. Reliable sources of water. 

5. Mostly polluted due to depth.

8889.

Write about Road safety rules.

Answer»
  • Aware of the road signals
  • Stop, look and cross
  • Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
  • Don’t rush on roads
  • Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
  • Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
  • Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle
8890.

A triangular-shaped alluvial tract formed at the mouth of the river: (a) Doab (b) Bay (c) Delta (d) Harbour

Answer»

Correct Answer is: (c) Delta

8891.

Assertion (A): TNPL is one of the most accomplished paper mill in the world. Reason (R): TNPL is a Government of Tamil Nadu enterprise.(a) Both (A) and (R) is correct (R) explains of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A). (c) (A) is correct (R) is false. (d) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer»

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) does not explains (A).

8892.

Distinguish between the Food crops and non-food crops.

Answer»

Food Crops:

1. Staple food crops paddy, millets and pulses. 

2. From the major source of regular diet. 

3. Mostly grown under subsistence farming the excess is given for sale

Non – Food Crops:

1. Oil seeds, sugarcane, cotton and plantation crops.

2. Mainly used for commercial purpose (cash crops).

3. Mostly grown and commercial farming mainly grown for agro-based manufacturing sector.

8893.

What do you understand by the term ‘mixed farming’?

Answer»

It is a type of farming which involves both growing of crops and the raising of live-stock simultaneously in a land holding.

8894.

Define the man-made disaster and enumerate the reasons for the industrial disaster.

Answer»

1. “A disastrous events caused directly or indirectly by human actions” are called as man made disaster. 

2. Industrial Disaster.

Major Reasons: Disasters caused by industrial companies either by

  • Accident
  • Negligence or
  • Incompetence
  • Electrical faults

(iii) Main factors contributing to fire accidents in industries:

  • Overheating
  • Aging of materials
  • Use of sub – stranded quality of electrical gadgets.

(iv) Electricity is not just a life line; it can also take away life when handled improperly. Other causes for industrial disasters are:

  • Explosions
  • Leaking of poisonous gases
  • Injuries and deaths caused by machines.

The regular maintenance of machines and wires may reduce the frequency of accidents. More over the administration should be employees friendly and ready to extend their help in case of any untoward incidents.

8895.

Give reasons: TNPL is one of the most accomplished mills in the world.

Answer»

TNPL produces different varieties paper of acceptable quality primarily from bagasse and wood pulp and is eco-friendly. Thus it is referred as one of the , most accomplished mills in the world.

8896.

Give reasons: It is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Answer»

1. The state is entirely dependent on rains for recharging its water resources. 

2. Monsoon failures lead to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

8897.

Fill in the blanks1. Tamil Nadu accounts for ……. % automobile components produced in India. 2. The single largest cottage industry in the state is the ………. 3. ……. is an area in which business and trade laws are different from the rest of the country. 4. ……. refers to the number to people living in a defined area. 5. If any district has a population of about 15 – 20 lakhs it cames under ……. population category. 6. ………. district is the least populated one.7. The ……. represents the number of females per 1000 males. 8. The ……. is the commercial part of a harbour with the facility of loading and unloading of goods and storage of cargo. 9. N.H 785 runs from to to a distance of 35 km. 10. ‘1077’ is the ………. contact number. 11. The state Disaster management Authority chairman is ………. 12. Education on awareness regarding the disasters may help in the ………. during disasters. 13. ………. is a deposit in the earth crust with one or more value minerals. 14. …. are the people with the ability to read and write. 15. …. is a large natural or artificial lake used as a source of water supply. 16. ……. is the statistical study of the characteristics of human population. 17. ……. are the people who make a deep and detailed study of the population.18. ……. is one of major problem confronting our nation with all its evil effects. 19. ……. is reared in the arid, semi-arid and mountainous areas in Tamil Nadu. 20. ……. is the best alternative for rearing in the marginal and undulating lands

Answer»

1. 35% 

2. handloom sector 

3. Special Economic Zone ,(SEZ) 

4. Population 

5. Moderate 

6. The Nilgiri

7. Sex – Ration 

8. Port 

9. Madurai to Nattham 

10. control room of district Collector / Magistrate 

11. Chief Minister 

12. reduction of risks

13. Ore 

14. Literates

15. Reservoirs 

16. Demography 

17. Demographers 

18. Over population 

19. Sheep 

20. Goat

8898.

What are fibre crops?

Answer»
  • Fibre crops include cotton and jute.
  • Cotton thrives well in black soil.
  • It is the major fibre crop of Tamil Nadu.
  • It is cultivated on a large scale in the districts of Coimbatore, Tirunelveli, Cuddalore.
8899.

Give reasons: Human beings are the most significant reasons on the earth surface.

Answer»

1. The resources available on the earth are useful only when they are utilised. 

2. Human beings using their intelligence and skill made these resources useful to mankind.

Thus the human beings are the most significant resources on the earth surface.

8900.

Fill in the blanks1. The ……. are the most significant resource on the earth surface. 2. …. is the mainstay of the state’s economy. 3. ………. is the major sources of rainfall for Tamil Nadu. 4. Fruits and vegetables are mainly cultivated in ………. cropping season. 5. FAO has decided to observe ………. as the International year of millets.6. Tamil Nadu co-operative Milk Producers Federation Limited is popularly known as ………7. With very low investments ……. can be made into profitable venture for small farmers. 8. Fishing done in 20 – 30 miles away from the shore is known as ……. 9. Vaigai dam is has its surname as ………. due to its unique as 10. Parappalar project is located near …. 11. The percapita availability of water resources in Tamil Nadu is just ……. cubic metres. 12. Coimbatore, Tirupur and Erode region is referred as ………. 13. ……. convert raw materials into usable product or goods. 14. ……. districts has some specialised areas for the manufacturing of synthetic silk clothes. 15. Hundreds of leather tanneries are located around ……. district.16. Vellore leather accounts for more than ……. % of leather and related products. 17. …. paper mill in Karur was started in the year 1979. 18. G.l Tag of Nagercoil is its ………. 19. Pattamadai is famous for ……. 20. ……. is the second largest software exporter next to Karnataka.

Answer»

1. human beings 

2. Agriculture 

3. North-East monsoon 

4. Navarai 

5. 2023 

6. Aavin 

7. goat rearing 

8. off-shore fishing 

9. little – Brindavan 

10. Ottanchatram 

11. 900 

12. Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu 

13. Industries

14. Ramanathapuram 

15. Vellore 

16. 37 

17. Kagithapuram 

18. Temple Jewellery 

19. mats 

20. Tamil Nadu