This section includes 7 InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your Current Affairs knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1. |
`Fe^(2+)` does not give prussian blue colour with `K_4[Fe((CN)_6]`, but on its reaction with (X), prussian blue colour appears with the reagent (X) is :A. `MnO_4^(-)//H^+`B. `H_2SO_4`C. `NH_3`D. All true |
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Answer» Correct Answer - A `MnO_4 H^(+) to[O] : Fe^(2+)overset([O])toFe^(3+)+[Fe(CN)_6]^(4-)to Fe_4[Fe(CN)_6]_3` |
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| 2. |
Mention industrial product obtained from HCHO. |
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Answer» The correct answer is Bakelite |
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| 3. |
The `Mw` of a oxide of an element is 44. The `Ew` of the element is 14. The atomic weight of the element isA. (a)`14`B. (b)`28`C. (c )`42`D. (d)`56` |
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Answer» Correct Answer - A Let the formula of oxide `=M_(2)O_(x)=44` `2xxM+x xx 16 =44` `2(Exx x)+x xx16=44` `2(14xx x)+16 x=44` `:. X=1` atomic weight `=14xx1=14` |
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| 4. |
Hydrogen gas will not reduce:A. (a)Heated cupric oxideB. (b)Heat ferric oxideC. (c )Heated stannic oxideD. (d)Heated aluminium oxide |
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Answer» Correct Answer - D Al is more electroposition than `H`. No doubt Fe and Sn are also more electroposition than `H` but they are reduced from `Fe^(3+)` to `Fe^(2+), Sn^(4+) to Sn^(2+)`. |
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| 5. |
Which of the following represents neo-pentyl alcohol? (1) CH3CH (CH3) CH2CH2OH (2) CH3 (CH2)3OH (3) (CH3)3C – CH2OH (4) CH3CH2CH (OH) C2H5 |
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Answer» (CH3)3C – CH2OH represents neo-pentyl alcohol. |
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| 6. |
What is correct IUPAC name of A. 4-Bromo -2-hydroxy cyclohex -5 -ene -1-oic acidB. 4-Bromo-2-hydroxy cyclohex -5-ene-1-carboxylic acidC. 4-Bromo-6-hydroxy cyclohex-2-ene-1-carboxylic acidD. 4-Bromo-6-hydroxy cyclohex -2-ene-1-oic acid |
| Answer» Correct Answer - C | |
| 7. |
Which of the following belongs to Same homologous series of alkyne `C_3H_4`?A. `C_4H_3`B. `C_4H_5`C. `C_4H_6`D. none of these |
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Answer» Correct Answer - C |
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| 8. |
Consider given compounds & write the number of compounds which have higher HOC than |
| Answer» Correct Answer - 4 | |
| 9. |
Indentify strongest acid amongst followings.A. B. `F_(3)C-overset(O)overset(||)underset(O)underset(||)(S)-OH`C. `H_(3)C-underset(O)underset(||)(C)-OH`D. |
| Answer» Correct Answer - B | |
| 10. |
How many compounds are chain, positional or functional group isomer of in given compounds |
| Answer» Correct Answer - 5 | |
| 11. |
Which of the ores mentioned in table in Table can be concentrated by magnetic separation method? |
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Answer» Ores which are magnetic in nature are separated from the non-magnetic gangue particles by magnetic separation method. For example,o ores of iron such as haematite `(Fe_2O_3)`, magnetite `(Fe_2O_4)`, siderite `(FeCO_3)` and iron pyrites `(FeS_2)` being magnetic can be separated from non-magnetic silica and other impurities by magnetic separation method. |
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| 12. |
Autoreduction process is used in the extraction ofA. Cu and HgB. Zn and HgC. Cu and AlD. Fe and Pb |
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Answer» Correct Answer - A Auto-reduction process is used in the extraction Cu and Hg `2Cu_(2)S+3O_(2) to 2Cu_(2)O+2SO_(2)` `2Cu_(2)O+Cu_(2) S to 6Cu + SO_2 ` `2Hg S + 3O_(2) to 2HgO+2SO_(2)` `2HgO overset(Delta)to2Hg +O_(2)` |
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| 13. |
Find the vapour pressure of solution containing 5g of sucrose in 1kg of water. If the vapour pressure of water is 4.7 mm of Hg. |
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Answer» As we know, relative lowering of vapour pressure \(\frac{P^0- P_s}{P^0} = x_2\) .....(1) where, x2 = mole fraction of solute P0 = pure vapour pressure of water Ps = vapour pressure of solution \(\therefore\) Number of moles of sucrose = \(\frac 5{342} = 0.1444\) Number of moles of water = \(\frac{1000}{18}= 55.56\) \(\therefore\) Mole fraction of sucrose = \(\frac{0.0144}{0.0144 + 55.56} = 0.0003\) \(\therefore\) From equation (1) \(\frac {4.7 - P_s}{4.7} = 0.0003\) \(4.7 - P_s = 0.00141\) \(P_s = 4.6986 \, mm\,Hg\) \(\therefore\) Vapour pressure of solution will be 4.6986 mm Hg. |
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| 14. |
What type of liquid form non-ideal solutions? |
Answer»
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| 15. |
Which of the following structures correspond to the product expected, when excess of `C_(6)H_(6)` reacts with `CH_(2)Cl_(2)` in presence of anhydrous `AlCl_(3)`?A. B. C. D. |
| Answer» Correct Answer - D | |
| 16. |
Name the natural source of each of the following acid (i) Citric acid. (ii)Oxalic acid. (iii)Lactic acid. (iv)Tartaric acid |
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Answer» Citric acid- Lemon |
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| 17. |
On entering a darkened room, the A. Threshold light intensity for the eye starts to rise. B. First phase of retinal adaptation is mainly in the cones. C. Final phase of retinal adaptation is mainly in the rods. D. Adaptation is slower if a long period was spent in bright light beforehand. E. Time course for pupillary dilatation is similar to that for dark adaptation. |
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Answer» A. False It begins to fall in the process of dark adaptation. B. True The initial adaptation is due more to cone adaptation. C. True Rods are slower to adapt but show more profound adaptation. D. True A previous long exposure would bleach most of the rhodopsin so more time would be needed for its resynthesis. E. False The pupil dilates almost immediately in the dark. |
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| 18. |
For each of the structures concerned with sound transmission in the ear A–E, select the most appropriate option from the list below. 1. Bulges out when the oval window 2. Dampens vibration of the oval window membrane bulges in. membrane. 3. Dampens vibrations of the tympanic 4. Located in the foramen ovale. membrane. 5. Bulges in when the oval window bulges in. A. Foot plate of stapes. B. Tympanic membrane. C. Tensor tympani muscle. D. Stapedius muscle. E. Round window. |
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Answer» A. Option 4 Located in the foramen ovale. It is embedded in the foramen ovale membrane. B. Option 5 Bulges in when the oval window bulges in. Tympanic membrane movements are transmitted by the auditory ossicles to the oval window. C. Option 3 Dampens vibrations of the tympanic membrane. This muscle is attached to the manubrium of the malleus and when it contracts reflexly in response to an incoming sound, it tightens the tympanic membrane and damps its movements. D. Option 2 Dampens vibration of the oval window membrane. The stapedius muscle is attached to the stapes and pulls on it reflexly to dampen its movements in response to incoming loud noise. E. Option 1 Bulges out when the oval window membrane bulges in. The round window lies where the scala tympani abuts on the middle ear and by bulging out when the stapes footplate bulges in reduces the pressure changes with incoming sounds in the inner ear. |
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| 19. |
For each of the structures concerned with taste sensation A–E, select the most appropriate option from the list below. 1. Carries taste impulses serving the 2. Associated with bitter taste sensation. sensation of sweetness. 3. Carries taste impulses serving the sensation 4. Associated with sweet taste sensation. of bitterness. 5. Associated with salt taste sensation. A. Taste buds at the back of the tongue. B. Taste buds at the front of the tongue. C. Taste buds at the side of the tongue. D. The glossopharyngeal nerve. E. The facial nerve. |
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Answer» A. Option 2 Associated with bitter taste sensation. The taste buds sensing bitter tastes are located in the vallate papillae in a V-shaped area on the back part of the upper surface of the tongue. B. Option 4 Associated with sweet taste sensation. Taste buds that sense sweet stimuli are in the fungi form papillae on the dorsal surface towards the front of the tongue. C. Option 5 Associated with salt taste sensation. The taste buds at the side of the tongue respond to salt and sour taste stimuli. D. Option 3 Carries taste impulses serving the sensation of bitterness. The gloss opharyngeal nerve carries impulses from the posterior third of the surface of the tongue and thus serves bitter taste sensation. E. Option 1 Carries taste impulses serving the sensation of sweetness. The chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve carries sensory impulses from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and thus serves the sensation of sweetness. |
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| 20. |
Increasing the salt concentration applied to a ‘salt’ taste bud increases A. Its sensitivity to salt. B. The amplitude of its generator potentials. C. The amplitude of the action potentials generated. D. Impulse traffic to the thalamus. E. Impulse traffic up the ascending reticular formation. |
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Answer» A. False It decreases; taste receptors adapt to stimuli applied to them. B. True Stronger stimuli lead to generator potentials of greater amplitude. C. False There is an increase in impulse frequency, not amplitude. D. True All but olfactory impulses are relayed in the thalamus. E. True All sensory inputs send impulses via collaterals to this system. |
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| 21. |
Utricles A. Are gravity receptors. B. Contain calcified granules. C. Contain hair cells. D. Contain endolymph which communicates with that in semicircular canals and cochlea. E. Can initiate reflex changes in muscle tone. |
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Answer» A. True They respond to linear acceleration. B. True The inertia of these otoliths enables utricles to respond to linear acceleration. C. True These are stimulated by forces acting on the otoliths. D. True They are all parts of the membranous labyrinth, filled with endolymph. E. True Muscle tone is reflexly redistributed so that the body can withstand gravitational stresses. |
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| 22. |
The tympanic membranes A. Bulge inwards during descent in an unpressurized airplane. B. Have an area about twice that of the oval window. C. Prevent sound waves from reaching the oval and round windows at the same time. D. Transmit only 10 per cent of applied sound energy to the cochlea for sound waves of 1000 Hz. E. Transmit sounds in the 500–5000 Hz frequency range with the least loss of energy. |
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Answer» A. True Cabin pressure rises above middle ear pressure. B. False Their area is about 20 times as great. C. True This ‘round window protection’ prevents damping of vibrations in the inner ear. D. False At this frequency, over half of the sound energy is transmitted. E. True Impedance matching and auditory acuity are greatest at these frequencies which are those used in normal speech. |
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| 23. |
For each of the structures concerned with hearing A–E, select the most appropriate option from the list below. 1. A centre for auditory reflexes. 2. Separates scala in the inner ear. 3. Equalizes middle ear with 4. Responsible for bony conduction of atmospheric pressure. incoming sound waves. 5. Important in air conduction of incoming sound waves. A. The basilar membrane. B. The skull. C. The auditory ossicles. D. The Eustachian tube. E. Inferior colliculi. |
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Answer» A. Option 2 Separates scala in the inner ear. The basilar membrane on which the organ of Corti lies separates the scala media from the scala tympani. B. Option 4 Responsible for bony conduction of incoming sound waves. If the middle ear is completely destroyed by disease, some hearing ability remains as sound waves can be conducted through the bone of the skull to the inner ear. C. Option 5 Important in air conduction of incoming sound waves. The malleus, incus and stapes form a good lever system to transmit sound waves from the tympanic membrane to the round window without much attenuation. D. Option 3 Equalizes middle ear with atmospheric pressure. The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the pharynx so that the pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane is about atmospheric. E. Option 1 A centre for auditory reflexes. The cochlear nerve carries auditory impulses from the organ of Corti to the inferior colliculi, centres for auditory reflexes. |
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| 24. |
An audiogram A. Is a plot of hearing loss (or hearing ability) against sound frequency. B. Showing equal impairment of air and bone conduction suggests conductive deafness. C. Showing hearing loss at low frequencies for air conduction suggests ear drum damage. D. Showing loss at 8000 Hz for air and bone conduction suggests basal cochlear damage. E. Showing hearing loss at the lower frequencies is common in elderly people. |
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Answer» A. True It is obtained using an audiometer. B. False In conductive deafness air conduction, but not bone conduction, is impaired. C. True This is an example of conductive deafness. D. True This can be caused by acoustic trauma, e.g. in heavy industry. E. False Hearing loss in the elderly (presbycusis) particularly affects higher frequencies. |
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| 25. |
For each of the structures concerned with inner ear receptor organs A–E, select the most appropriate option from the list below. 1. The gelatinous partition of top of the 2. The sensory organ in the utricle. crista that closes off the ampulla. 3. The membrane structure overlying the 4. The sensory organ in the semicircular receptor cells in the organ of Corti. canals. 5. The hair processes on receptor cells in the inner ear. A. Crista ampullaris. B. Otolith organ. C. Cupula. D. Stereocilia. E. Tectorial membrane. |
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Answer» A. Option 4 The sensory organ in the semicircular canals. Each semicircular canal has an ampulla whose sense organ is stimulated by movement of endolymph caused by rotary accelerations of the head in the three spatial planes in which the semicircular canals lie. B. Option 2 The sensory organ in the utricle. These sensory organs are stimulated by linear accelerations of the head that modify the pull of the otoliths on the hair cells of the otolith organ. C. Option 1 The gelatinous partition of top of the crista that closes off the ampulla. When there is movement of fluid in the semicircular canals it causes deflections of the cupula that alter the output of impulses from the underlying crista ampullaris. D. Option 5 The hair processes on receptor cells in the inner ear. These rod-shaped structures protrude from the hair cells and cause generator potentials when they are deformed by movement of endolymph. E. Option 3 The membrane structure overlying the receptor cells in the organ of Corti. This structure which overlies the organ of Corti may be involved in bending of hair cells when the basilar membrane is made to vibrate with incoming sound waves. |
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| 26. |
In the middle ear A. Destruction of the auditory ossicles abolishes hearing. B. Paralysis of the auditory muscles makes sounds more faint. C. Immobilization of the stapes causes greater deafness than removal of the ossicles. D. Air pressure is normally atmospheric pressure. E. The round window moves reciprocally with the oval window. |
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Answer» A. False Sound can still be transmitted by bone conduction. B. False These muscles damp vibration of the ossicles reflexly in response to loud noises. C. True Immobilization prevents the oval window vibrating and causes severe deafness. D. True Air pressure is atmospheric, due to the patency of the pharyngotympanic tubes connecting the pharynx to the middle ear. E. True Fluid (endolymph) cannot be compressed; as the oval window moves in, the round window moves out. |
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| 27. |
Taste receptors A. For sour taste predominate at the sides of the tongue. B. May respond to more than one modality of stimulus. C. Give rise to a sour taste when stimulated by hydrogen ions. D. Cannot detect small ( 10 per cent) differences in the concentration of taste-evoking chemicals. E. Respond more to substances in warm solutions than in cold ones even though the substance concentration is the same in both. |
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Answer» A. True Receptors for bitter taste predominate on the posterior dorsum of the tongue. B. True Recording from single taste receptors demonstrates that a single receptor can respond to more than one modality. C. True All acids taste sour. D. True Taste receptors are poor at discriminating between intensities; a concentration difference of more than 30 per cent is needed for discrimination. E. True Food flavour is accentuated when hot; unpleasant medicine less offensive when cold. |
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| 28. |
Olfactory cells A. Are epithelial cells which synapse with olfactory nerves. B. Generate impulses when stimulated which are relayed in the thalamus. C. Are chemoreceptors. D. Show little adaptation. E. Are more important than taste in appreciating the flavour of food. |
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Answer» A. False They are modified nerve cells in the nasal epithelium. B. False Unlike other sensory inputs, olfactory impulses are not relayed in the thalamus. C. True They recognize certain molecular structures. D. False It is the newcomer who recognizes the smell in the room. E. True In their absence, food loses much of its flavour. |
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| 29. |
The basilar membrane of the cochlea vibrates A. At the same frequency as the applied sound. B. With an amplitude which is proportional to the frequency of the applied sound. C. With an amplitude which is proportional to the loudness of the applied sound. D. Along more of its length when the applied sound has a high rather than a low frequency. E. Mainly at the base of the cochlea for the sound frequencies commonly used in speech. |
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Answer» A. True Harmonics are also faithfully reproduced. B. False Frequency and amplitude need not be related. C. True Hence very loud sounds can damage the basilar membrane. D. False Low frequency vibrations travel further up the cochlea. E. True Speech frequencies (about 1000–3000 Hz) cause maximum vibration in this region. |
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| 30. |
The tympanic membrane A. Modifies the frequencies of sound waves impinging on the ear. B. Stops vibrating almost immediately after the sound stops. C. Bulges outwards when the pharyngotympanic tube is blocked. D. Transmits sound more effectively when the small muscles of the middle ear are contracted. E. Cannot transmit sound waves if it is perforated. |
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Answer» A. False It faithfully reproduces the frequencies. B. True It is very nearly ‘critically damped’. C. False It bulges inwards as middle ear air is absorbed. D. False Reflex contraction of these muscles protects by damping vibration transmission. E. False Small perforations cause about 5 decibels loss; complete destruction about 50. |
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| 31. |
Adaptation for vision in poor light is A. Complete after 2–3 minutes. B. Due mainly to dilatation of the pupil. C. Due to regeneration of rod but not cone pigments. D. Faster if red goggles are worn before entering the dark environment. E. More effective for peripheral than central vision. |
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Answer» A. False It takes about 20 minutes. B. False Dilatation of the pupil contributes but regeneration of bleached receptor pigments is the main factor. C. False Regeneration of cone pigments plays a part. D. True Red light does not bleach rhodopsin. E. True Peripheral vision adapts better to dark conditions; rods predominate peripherally. |
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| 32. |
The basilar membrane A. Is broader at the base of the cochlea than at the apex.B. Vibrations stimulate receptors to generate impulses at the frequencies of the applied sounds. C. At the base of the cochlea vibrates only to incoming high frequency sounds. D. In the apical region vibrates only to incoming sounds of low frequency. E. Can be made to vibrate by pressure waves travelling through skull bone. |
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Answer» A. False The reverse is true. B. False Nerves cannot transmit impulses at the top frequencies detectable by ear, about 20 000 Hz. C. False At the base, the basilar membrane vibrates to high and low frequency sound waves. D. True High frequency sounds are damped out before they reach the apex. E. True This supplements the normal ossicular conduction, especially for loud sounds. |
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| 33. |
In unilateral vestibular disease, typical features include A. The sensation that the external world is revolving. B. Prolonged nystagmus when cold water is placed in the external auditory meatus on the affected side. C. A tendency to stagger when walking. D. A tendency to fall in the dark. E. Nausea and vomiting. |
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Answer» A. True Unbalanced vestibular input causes this sensation (vertigo). B. False In this ‘caloric’ test, reduction in nystagmus duration indicates vestibular abnormality. C. True Due to inappropriate information affecting brain areas controlling balance. D. True Compensating visual stimuli are then eliminated. E. True Unbalanced, excessive or reduced vestibular inputs cause nausea and vomiting as seen in sea-sickness and space-travel sickness. |
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| 34. |
During accommodation for near vision A. More light enters the eye. B. The curvature of the cornea increases. C. Chromatic and spherical aberration is decreased. D. The depth of focus increases. E. The visual axes of the two eyes converge. |
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Answer» A. False Less light enters the eye as the pupils constrict. B. False The cornea is not involved in accommodation; the increase in refractive power in the eye is due to the increased convexity of the lens caused by contraction of the ciliary muscle. C. True The papillary constriction restricts light rays entering the eye to the centre of the lens where there is less chromatic and spherical aberration. D. True Due mainly to the improvement in optical characteristic mentioned in (C) above. E. True To allow the object to be focused on the two foveae. |
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| 35. |
For each of the visual terms A–E, select the most appropriate option from the following list of definitions. 1. Blindness in half of the visual field. 2. Loss of central vision with normal 3. Continuous jerky movements of the peripheral vision. eyeballs. 4. People who can only distinguish between 5. Loss of peripheral vision with normal two primary colours. central vision. A. Nystagmus. B. Hemianopia. C. Dichromats. D. Central scotoma. E. Macular sparing. |
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Answer» A. Option 3 Continuous jerky movements of the eyeballs. These can occur normally (physiological nystagmus) but are exaggerated in certain diseases affecting the cerebellum. B. Option 1 Blindness in half of the visual field. Usually caused by a lesion in one optic tract. A lesion affecting one optic nerve causes total blindness in that eye. C. Option 4 People who can only distinguish between two primary colours. This is one form of colour blindness; healthy people (trichromats) can distinguish between the three primary colours. D. Option 2 Loss of central vision with normal peripheral vision. This is due to damage to the macula. E. Option 5 Loss of peripheral vision with normal central vision. This is often seen in patients with lesions affecting the occipital (visual) cortex. |
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| 36. |
Typical effects of ageing on the special senses include gradual loss of A. Near vision. B. Olfactory sensitivity (hyposmia). C. 90 per cent of the accommodative power of the lens during the lifespan. D. Hearing affecting bone and air conduction similarly. E. Hearing affecting high and low frequencies similarly. |
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Answer» A. True Recession of the near point is typical of the ageing eye (presbyopia); vision at 20–30 cm deteriorates. B. True It affects over 70 per cent of elderly people. C. True It falls from 10–15 dioptres in childhood to 5–10 at 30 and to about 1 dioptre at 70. D. True It is a sensorineural deafness (presbycusis). E. False High-pitched sounds are more affected. |
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| 37. |
In the visual field of the left eye, an object A. In the upper temporal quadrant is detected in the lower nasal quadrant of the retina. B. At the centre of the field of vision is detected in the optic disc. C. Focused on the blind spot is in the nasal half of the visual field. D. In the temporal half generates impulses which travel the left optic tract. E. In the nasal half is more likely to be perceived in binocular vision than one in the temporal half. |
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Answer» A. True The image is inverted and reversed with respect to the object. B. False The point focused upon is detected at the macula (fovea). C. False The optic disc is medial to the fovea, so the blind spot is in the temporal part of the field of vision. D. False Impulses related to the temporal region of the left field of vision cross to the right at the optic chiasma. E. True The visual fields of the two eyes overlap, apart from the outer temporal areas. |
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| 38. |
Involuntary oscillatory eye movements (nystagmus) A. Do not occur in healthy people. B. May result from cochlear disease. C. Occur in cerebellar disease. D. Occur when cold fluid is run into one external ear canal. E. Do not affect acuity of vision. |
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Answer» A. False They occur when a normal person stops rotating. B. False Disease of the semicircular canals may cause nystagmus. C. True Nystagmus is an ataxia of eye fixation. D. True Due to cooling of fluid in the adjacent semicircular canal. E. False The rapid eye movements tend to make vision blurred. |
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| 39. |
Dilation of the pupil increases the A. Amount of light entering the eye. B. Refractive power of the eye. C. Spherical aberration. D. Depth of focus. E. Field of vision. |
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Answer» A. True This allows rapid adaptation for vision in poor light. B. False The iris has nothing to do with the refractive power of the eye. C. True By permitting light to pass through peripheral, and less perfect, parts of the lens. D. False As with a camera, a wide aperture tends to shorten the depth of focus. E. False Narrowing the aperture in a camera does not result in a smaller picture. |
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| 40. |
If speed V, area A and force F are chosen as fundamental units, then the dimension of Young’s modulus will be(1) FA–1V0 (2) FA2V–1 (3) FA2V–2 (4) FA2V–3 |
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Answer» Answer is (1) FA–1V0 ∵ [Young’s modulus] = \(\Big[\frac{Force}{Area}\Big]\) ⇒ [Young’s modulus] = FA–1 ⇒ [Young’s modulus] = FA–1V0 |
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| 41. |
The value of (2. 1P0 – 3. 2P1 + 4. 3P2 – .... up to 51th term) + (1! – 2! + 3! – ..... up to 51th term) is equal to : (1) 1 + (51)! (2) 1 – 51(51)! (3) 1 + (52)! (4) 1 |
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Answer» (3) 1 + (52)! S = (2. 1 p 0 – 3. 2 p 1 + 4. 3 p 2 ......... upto 51 terms) + (1! + 2! + 3! .......... upto 51 terms) [\(\therefore\) npn–1 = n!] \(\therefore\) S = (2 × 1! – 3 × 2! + 4 × 3! .... + 52.51!) + (1! – 2! + 3! ........... (51)!) = (2! – 3! + 4! ........ + 52!) + (1! – 2! + 3! – 4! + ...... + (51)!) = 1! + 52! |
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| 42. |
The molecule in which hybrid MOs involve only one d-orbital of the central atom is :- (1) [Ni(CN)4]2– (2) [CrF6]3– (3) BrF5 (4) XeF4 |
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Answer» (1) [Ni(CN)4]2– [Ni(CN)4]2– dsp2 hybridisation. |
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| 43. |
The contrapositive of the statement "If I reach the station in time, then I will catch the train" is : (1) If I will catch the train, then I reach the station in time. (2) If I do not reach the station in time, then I will not catch the train. (3) If I will not catch the train, then I do not reach the station in time. (4) If I do not reach the station in time, then I will catch the train. |
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Answer» Answer is (3) If I will not catch the train, then I do not reach the station in time. Let p denotes statement p : I reach the station in time. q : I will catch the train. Contrapositive of p→ q is ~q → ~p ~q → ~p : I will not catch the train, then I do not reach the station in time. |
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| 44. |
Consider the statement : "For an integer n, if n3 – 1 is even, then n is odd." The contrapositive statement of this statement is : (1) For an integer n, if n3 – 1 is not even, then n is not odd. (2) For an integer n, if n is even, then n3 – 1 is odd. (3) For an integer n, if n is odd, then n3 – 1 is even. (4) For an integer n, if n is even, then n3 – 1 is even. |
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Answer» (2) For an integer n, if n is even, then n3 – 1 is odd. Contrapositive of (p → q) is ~q → ~p For an integer n, if n is even then (n3 – 1) is odd |
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| 45. |
Among the statements (I – IV), the correct ones are: (I) Be has smaller atomic radius compared to Mg. (II) Be has higher ionization enthalpy than Al. (III) Charge/radius ratio of Be is greater than that of Al. (IV) Both Be and Al form mainly covalent compounds. (1) (I), (II) and (IV) (2) (II), (III) and (IV) (3) (I), (II) and (III) (4) (I), (III) and (IV |
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Answer» (3) (I), (II) and (III) I AN : Be < Mg II IE : Be > Al III Charge/radius ratio of Be w less than that of Al IV Be, Al mainly form covalent compounds |
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| 46. |
If 2x2 + (a - 10)x + 33/2 = 2a, a ∈ z+ has real roots, then minimum value of 'a' is equal to |
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Answer» D ≥ 0 (a - 10)2 - 4(2)(33/2 - 2a) ≥ 0 (a - 10)2 - 4(33 - 4a) ≥ 0 a2 - 4a - 32 ≥ 0 ⇒ a ∈ (- ∞, - 4] ∪ [8, ∞)
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| 47. |
Consider the reaction sequence given below:Which of the following statements is true :(1) Changing the concentration of base will have no effect on reaction (1) (2) Changing the concentration of base will have no effect on reaction (2) (3) Changing the base from OHΘ to ΘOR will have no effect on reaction (2) (4) Doubling the concentration of base will double the rate of both the reactions. |
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Answer» Answer is (1) Changing the concentration of base will have no effect on reaction (1) Reaction 1 : SN1 Reaction 2 : E2 SN1 is independent of concentration of nucleophile/base |
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| 48. |
The order of basic character is :(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > I > II (3) II > I > III > IV (4) IV > I > II > III |
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Answer» The answer is (2) IV > III > I > II Basic strength depends upon availability of lone pairs. Greater the resonance of lone pairs lesser the basic strength. |
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| 49. |
Which of the given statement is incorrect about glucose? (1) Glucose exists in two crystalline forms α and β (2) Glucose gives schiff's test. (3) Penta acetate of glucose does not form oxime. (4) Glucose forms oxime with hydroxyl amine. |
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Answer» Answer: (2) Glucose gives schiff's test. Open chain form of glucose is very very small, hence does not gives Schiff's test. |
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Complexes (ML5) of metals Ni and Fe have ideal square pyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal grometries, respectively. The sum of the 90°, 120° and 180° L-M L |
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Answer» Answer is 20 |
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