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The correct choice is (d) Recognisable sites over ANTIGENS

Easy EXPLANATION: Antigenic determinants are recognisable sites over antigens. Antigens are generally large molecules. The majority of them are made up of Proteins and Polysaccharides found on the cells WALLS of BACTERIA and other cells or the coat of viruses.

The correct choice is (c) Humoral Immunity

For explanation I would say: Humoral Immunity is also CALLED as Antibody-mediated Immunity. Our immune system comprises of the antibodies present in the BODY humour-blood, lymph. Antibodies protect our body from pathogens that happen to enter blood and lymph.

The correct option is (b) 20 TRILLION

Easy EXPLANATION: Number of ANTIBODIES produced per day during an infection can be 20 trillion. Antibodies are immunoglobulins which are produced in RESPONSE to ANTIGENIC stimulation.

Right option is (a) CLASSICAL pathway

The explanation is: In ACQUIRED immunity, COMPLEMENT system functions through Classical pathway. In Acquired immunity, the system becomes ACTIVE in response to the antigen-antibody complex.

Correct answer is (d) CYTOKINE barriers

To explain I WOULD say: Interferons are a TYPE of Cytokine barrier. They are a type of protein secreted by virus-infected cells which PROTECT the non-infected cells from VIRAL infection.

Right ANSWER is (a) Alternate pathway

Best EXPLANATION: In innate immunity, complement system functions through the Alternate Pathway. The system gets activated directly in response to bacterial endotoxins, microbial polysaccharides, cell WALL and other COMPONENTS of invading microorganisms.

The correct answer is (d) Thirty

The explanation is: Complement system is a system of over 30 PROTEINS which PARTICIPATE in both INNATE and acquired IMMUNITIES in a cascade FASHION for protecting the individual from pathogens.

The CORRECT option is (a) Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes

For EXPLANATION I would say: PMNL-neutrophils are Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes. These are granulocytes which are a category of WHITE blood cells and have GRANULES in their cytoplasm. They have a VARYING degree of the nucleus in their cells.

Correct OPTION is (c) Antibacterial

The BEST EXPLANATION: Lysozyme is Antibacterial by nature. It is a bacteriolytic enzyme present in SWEAT, tears, saliva and mucus. Lysozyme BRINGS about the hydrolysis of bacterial cell walls.

The CORRECT answer is (B) OIL and sweat

The explanation: Oil and sweat are not ANATOMIC or Physical barriers. Anatomic barriers are Skin, Nostril hair, Mucous membranes, Mucus and CILIA.

Correct choice is (c) Three

The explanation: Our body has three lines of DEFENCE. The FIRST line of defence is Physical and Physiological barriers. The second line of defence includes Cellular and Cytokine barriers. The third line of defence includes humoral and cell-mediated IMMUNITY.

The correct CHOICE is (d) Non-specific IMMUNITY

For EXPLANATION I WOULD say: Acquired Immunity is not called as Non-specific Immunity. Acquired Immunity is also called as Specific Immunity and Adapted Immunity. Acquired Immunity is further divided into Humoral and Cell-Mediated Immunity.

Right choice is (b) INBORN immunity

The explanation: Innate immunity is also CALLED as inborn immunity because it is present at the time of birth. This is a non-specific type of defence. It is ACCOMPLISHED by PROVIDING different TYPES of barriers to the entry of a foreign agent or a pathogen into our body.

Correct answer is (c) Azidothymidine

Explanation: Treatment of Genital WARTS consists of CRYOTHERAPY with LIQUID nitrogen, electrocautery, excision, laser surgery and topical application of podophyllin in tincture of BENZOIN. Alpha interferon is also used to treat genital warts.

Correct choice is (c) Complex BARRIER

Easiest EXPLANATION: Complex barrier does not COME under innate immunity. Innate immunity includes PHYSICAL barrier, Physiological barrier, Cellular barrier and Cytokine barrier.

Correct answer is (b) Human papilloma VIRUS

The best I can EXPLAIN: Human papilloma virus is an oncogenic virus as it causes the cancer of reproductive ORGANS like CERVICAL cancer. Pap smear is DONE as a screening test for cervical cancer.

The correct CHOICE is (a) 15-24 years

The BEST I can explain: Though all persons are VULNERABLE to STDs, their INCIDENCES are high among the age GROUP of 15-24 years. Prevention or early detection and cure of these diseases are given prime consideration under the reproductive health-care programmes.

The correct CHOICE is (B) Chalamydiasis

Easiest explanation: Except for Hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV infections, other STDs are completely curable if detected early and treated PROPERLY. Early symptoms include itching, fluid discharge, SLIGHT pain, SWELLINGS etc.

Correct choice is (c) Haemophilus

Explanation: Chancroid is caused by Haemophilus ducrei. The incubation period of this bacteria is 3-5 days. The initial lesion at the site of inoculation BREAKS down to form a painful, soft ULCER with a necrotic BASE. With lymph node involvement, FEVER and chills may OCCUR.

The correct ANSWER is (a) The period between EXPOSURE to an INFECTION and the appearance of the first symptoms

To explain: Incubation period means the period between exposure to an infection and the appearance of the first symptoms. Depending on the disease, the person MAY or may not be contagious during the incubation period.

Correct answer is (d) Human Papilloma VIRUS

The explanation is: GENITAL Warts is caused by Human Papilloma Virus. This disease is commonly transmitted through SEXUAL contact. Average TIME for the SYMPTOMS to appear after an infection is 4-20 months. It produces warts over the skin, external genitalia and perianal area.

The CORRECT CHOICE is (C) Chlamydia

Explanation: Chlamydia may be passed from mother to infant during childbirth, INFECTING the eyes. It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Treatment consists of administration of TETRACYCLINE, erythromycin or doxycycline.

The correct CHOICE is (a) Pelvic Inflammatory DISEASE

The EXPLANATION: PID stands for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease. It is an infection of the FEMALE reproductive system. It spreads through unprotected vaginal, anal or oral sex. Its common symptom is Pain in the lower abdomen and PELVIS.

The correct option is (b) When SIGNS of organ degeneration APPEAR

Explanation: In the first stage of syphilis, CHANCRE and rashes appear. Fever along with muscle and joints pain occur in the secondary stage. These symptoms ALSO disappear. During the symptomless period which lasts for about 20 years, the BACTERIA may invade the body organs. When the signs of organ degeneration appear, the disease is said to be in a tertiary stage.

Correct answer is (a) Muscular DYSTROPHY

To explain: Muscular Dystrophy is not a sexually TRANSMITTED disease. It is an AUTOSOMAL dominant Mendelian disorder. Syphilis, Chancroid and Trichomoniasis are sexually transmitted DISEASES which are caused by Treponema pallidum, Haemophilus ducrei and Trichomonas vaginalis respectively.

The correct choice is (a) GONORRHOEA

To explain I would SAY: Urinogenital tract INFECTION in males accompanied by YELLOW DISCHARGE, burning feeling on passing urine, fever and headache is Gonorrhoea. It is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In males, prostate gland and epididymis may also become infected.

The CORRECT CHOICE is (d) Candidiasis

Easy explanation: Candidiasis is a fungal infection due to Candida (a genera of YEAST). When it affects the vagina, a white cottage cheese-like discharge occurs ALONG with GENITAL itching and burning.

Correct answer is (c) Cervix

The explanation: The most COMMON SITE of infection in female SUFFERING from chlamydiasis is the cervix, resulting in cervicitis and PRODUCTION of THICK mucus and pus discharge.

The correct option is (a) TRICHOMONIASIS

Easiest explanation: Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis which is a FLAGELLATED PROTOZOAN. Trichomoniasis is an inflammation of the mucous membrane of the VAGINA in female and urethra in males.

Correct choice is (d) liver

To explain: The site of infection RELATES to the TYPE of sexual contact, occurring in MOUTH and throat after oral-genital contact, VAGINA and penis after genital contact or RECTUM after recto-genital contact.

The correct option is (c) Chlamydia

The best I can explain: In males, urethritis is the principal result of Chlamydia. SYMPTOMS of Urethritis INCLUDE a THICK discharge, burning on urination, frequent and PAINFUL urination.

Correct answer is (B) Hepatitis-B

The explanation is: Hepatitis-B is caused by Hepatitis B virus (HBV). It is also a VENEREAL disease or a SEXUALLY transmitted disease. The virus passes from one person to ANOTHER by blood, semen or any other body fluids.

Correct option is (B) VENEREAL Disease Research Laboratory

To ELABORATE: VDRL stands for Venereal Disease Research Laboratory. It is an antibody detection TEST used for diagnosing Syphilis. The VDRL test doesn’t look for the bacteria that cause syphilis. Instead, it checks for the antibodies our BODY makes in response to the antigens.

Right choice is (a) AIDS

Best explanation: Fomite TRANSMISSION refers to the transmission of infectious diseases by objects. Common COLD, RINGWORM and influenza are OBJECT borne diseases meaning that the transmission of these diseases takes place by the pathogens left on the objects.

The correct ANSWER is (b) False

The best I can explain: Microsporum genera of fungi cause RINGWORM of skin and hair. TRICHOPHYTON genera cause ringworm of skin, hair and nails. EPIDERMOPHYTON genera cause ringworm of skin and nails.

The correct choice is (B) Ringworm of Beard

The explanation is: TINEA barbae is ALSO called as ringworm of beard. Ringworms of Scalp, Body and GROIN are called as Tinea capitis, Tinea corporis and Tinea cruris.

Right option is (a) Heat and MOISTURE

Best explanation: Heat and moisture conditions promote the GROWTH of the fungi. It ALSO MAKES them thrive in SKIN folds such as those in the groin or between the toes.

Correct choice is (c) Seeing an infected person

The EXPLANATION is: Ringworm cannot be SPREAD by just seeing the infected person. Direct skin-to-skin CONTACT is NECESSARY for the transmission of this disease. The common sources of infection are soil and TOWELS, clothes, combs, etc. of infected persons.

Right CHOICE is (a) TRICHOPHYTON rubrum

For explanation: Trichophyton rubrum is responsible for causing the Athlete’s foot. Trichophyton mentagrophytes CAUSE the ringworm of body and beard. EPIDERMOPHYTON floccosum and Epidermophyton cruris cause Tinea cruris or Jock Itch.