InterviewSolution
This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.
| 1301. |
The salt solution which does not react with ammonium hydroxide is :(A) Calcium Nitrate (B) Zinc Nitrate (C) Lead Nitrate (D) Copper Nitrate |
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Answer» (A) Calcium Nitrate |
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| 1302. |
Why is direct absorption of hydrogen chloride gas in water not feasible? |
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Answer» The reaction is highly exothermic . |
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| 1303. |
The percentage composition of a gas is:Nitrogen 82.35%, Hydrogen 17.64%Find the empirical formula of the gas.[N=14, H=–1] |
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Answer» The percentage composition of a gas is N = 82.35 % H = 17.64% So, the empirical formula of the gas is NH3 |
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| 1304. |
Write a balanced equation for a reaction in which ammonia is oxidized by:(a) a metal oxide(b) a gas which is not oxygen |
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Answer» Balanced equation: (a) 2NH3 + 3CuO → 3Cu + 3H2O + N2 (b) 2NH3 + 3Cl2 → N2 + 6HCl |
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| 1305. |
Here is an electrode reaction: 1. Cu → Cu2+ + 2e– At which electrode (anode or cathode) would such a reaction take place? Is this an example of oxidation or reduction? 2. A solution contains magnesium ions (Mg2+) iron (II) ions (Fe2+) and copper ions (Cu2+). On passing an electric current through this solution which ions will be the first to be discharged at the cathode? Write the equation for the cathode reaction. 3. Why is carbon tetrachloride, which is a liquid, a non-electrolyte? |
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Answer» 1. This reaction will take place at anode. It is an example of oxidation. 2. Cu++ ions. Cu++ + 2e– → Cu (at cathode). 3. Carbon tetrachloride is a convalent compound. |
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| 1306. |
What are the terms defined in (g) (1) – (5) below? 1. A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons, each bonding atom contributing one electron to the pair. 2. A bond formed by a shared pair of electrons with both electrons coming from the same atom. 3. A salt containing a metal ion surrounded by other ions or molecules. 4. A base which is soluble in water. 5. A reaction in which the hydrogen of an alkane is replaced by another element like chlorine. |
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Answer» 1. Covalent bond 2. Co-ordinate bond. 3. Complex salt. 4. Alkali 5. Substitution. |
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| 1307. |
Copy and complete the following table relating to important industrial processes. Output refers to the product of the process not the intermediate steps.Name of ProcessInputsCatalystEquation for catalysed reactionOutputHaber ProcessHydrogen +Ammonia + airNitric acidContact ProcessSulphur dioxide + oxygen |
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| 1308. |
What is RNA inteiference? Give any one application of RNA interference. |
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Answer» RNA interference : It is a method of cellular defence which takes place in all eukaryotic organisms. It involves silencing of a specific w-RNA due to the complementary Application of RNA interference : Several nematodes parasitise a wide variety of plants and animals. For example a nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and reduces the yield. RNA interference, prevents this infestation. |
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| 1309. |
Give two differences between a d.c. motor and an a.c generator. |
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Answer» Two differences between d.c motor and a.c.generator are given below:
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| 1310. |
State a relation between electrical power? resistance and potential difference in an electrical circuit. |
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Answer» In an electrical circuit, the electrical power is given by P = V2/R where V= potential difference and R = resistance. |
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| 1311. |
What is a DNA library ? How is a genomic DNA library formed ? |
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Answer» DNA Library: DNA library is a collection of DNA fragments of one organism, each carried by a plasmid or virus and cloned in an appropriate host. A DNA probe is used to locate a specific DNA sequence in the library. A collection representing the entire genome is called a genomic (DNA) library. An assortment of DNA copies of messenger RNA produced by a cell is known as a complimentary DNA (cDNA) library. Construction of Genomic Library: The process of subdividing genomic DNA into clonable elements and inserting them into host cells is called creating a library. A complete library, by definition, contains the entire genomic DNA of the source organism and is called as genomic library. A genomic library is a set of cloned fragments of genomic DNA. The process of creating a genomic library includes four steps : In the first step the high molecular weight genomic DNA is separated and subjected to restriction enzyme digestion by using two compatible restriction enzymes. In the second step, the fragments are then fractionated or separated by using agarose gel electrophoresis to obtain fragments of required size. These fragments are then subjected to alkaline phosphatase treatment to remove the phosphate. In the third step, the dephosphorylated insert is ligated into vector which could be a plasmid, phage or cosmid, depending upon the interest of the researcher. In the last step, the recombinant vector is introduced into the host by electroporation and amplified in host. In principle, all the DNA from the source organism is inserted into the host, but this is not fully possible as some DNA sequences escape the cloning procedure. Genomic library is a source of genes and DNA sequences. A genomic library is a set of cloned fragments of genomic DNA. Prior information about the genome is not required for library construction for most organisms. In principle, the genomic DNA, after the isolation, is subjected to RE enzyme for digestion to generate inserts. |
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| 1312. |
State the main achievements of the Human Genome Project. |
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Answer» The Human Genome Project was an international scientific research project that determined the DNA sequence of the approximately 30,000 — 35,000 genes that make-up the human genome. The greatest achievement of this project is that scientists can find out the structure of human genes and successfully trace the structure of genes. It has been possible to develop the technique regarding the treatment of defective genes only because of the human genome project. The treatment of the hereditary diseases like cancer has been easier because of this project. DNA interference is a recently developed technique regarding treatment by which it would be possible to treat many incurable diseases. Along with this, the development of human, physical and mental structure etc., are the main achievements of human genome project. |
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| 1313. |
Give two applications of somatic hybridization. |
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Answer» Application of Somatic Hybridization : • Somatic cell fusion appears to be the only means through which two different parental genomes can be recombined among plants that cannot reproduce sexually (asexual or sterile). • Protoplasts of sexually sterile (haploid, triploid, and aneuploid) plants can be fused to produce fertile diploids and polyploids. • Somatic cell fusion overcomes sexual incompatibility barriers. In some cases somatic hybrids between two incompatible plants have also found application in industry or agriculture. • Somatic cell fusion is useful in the study of cytoplasmic genes and their activities and this information can be applied in plant-breeding experiments. |
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| 1314. |
State any four achievements of the Human Genome Project. |
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Answer» Achievement of Human Genome Project: • Human genome is largely consisting of – 3 × 109 base pairs a lot of repeated sequences. • 3 billion base pairs were translated into biologically meaningful information by using computers and it led to a new field of bioinformatics. • Human genome sequencing will enable a new approach to biological research. • Understanding of function of biological systems increases in public and private sectors due to knowledge from DNA sequences. • More than 1200 genes are associated with common human disorders such as Cardio- . Vascular diseases, diabetes, (endocrine disease), Alzheimer disease (neurological disorder). • Efforts for health care are being made to design drugs, genetically modified diets, nutraceuticals etc. |
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| 1315. |
Enumerate any two post transcriptional changes in the mRNA to produce a completely mature mRNA. |
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Answer» Post-transcriptional changes : Modification at 5′ end of primary RNA (Heterogenous RNA or hnRNA) transcript is called capping. During capping, an extra guanosine residue in first added to the terminal nucleoside triphosphate of the primary RNA transcript. Guanosine residue is further modified by addition of methyl groups. Capping prevents the 5′ end of TORNA from being digested by exonucleases. It aids in the transport of m-RNA out of the nucleus and plays an important role in the m-RNA translation. Addition of a string of adenosine residues, forming a poly (A) tail at 3′ end of the TO-RNA. The process of removal of those parts of primary transcript, corresponding to introns and joining together of exons, is known as splicing. |
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| 1316. |
The President of India is a nominal and constitutional head of the nation. In this context answer the following questions: (a) Why is the President of India referred to as a nominal head of the State ? State two examples of his legislative powers that suggest his nominal status.(b) Mention the circumstances when the President can declare a national emergency.(c) Explain two Discretionary powers of the President. |
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Answer» (a) President of India is referred to as a nominal head of the state because he exercises most of his powers on the advice given to him by the Prime minister and his council. Legislative Powers : 1. Assenting a bill passed by the houses. 2. Ordinances need to be passed by the houses or else will become null and void. 3. Declaration of emergency must be approved by the houses. (b) A proclamation of emergency can be made by the President at any time if he is satisfied that the security of India or any part is in danger, or is likely to be in danger either due to war or external aggression or armed rebellion. (c) Two Discretionary powers of the President: 1. He has a very important role to play in the actual working of the Parliamentary system in our country. The oath of office which the President takes in the name of God on assuming his office puts upon him a sacred obligation to be the guardian of the constitution and law. His oath binds him to render service for the well being of the people of India. 2. In the case of no single party getting a clear majority, a coalition of parties makes its claim to form the Government. The President has to use his discretionary judgement and invite such a leader to head the Government as Prime Minister who can provide a stable Government to the country. His judgement and decision are of crucial importance. |
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| 1317. |
The Legislative Council in the States and the Rajya Sabha are Permanent Houses. With reference to the two Houses answer the following questions : (a) Mention two ways in which Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Council can control the Executive. Explain one of its limitations in this regard.(b) How many members constitute the Rajya Sabha ? How many members does the Governor nominate to the Vidhan Parishad ? How are the members elected to the Rajya Sabha.(c) Mention four special powers of the Rajya Sabha. |
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Answer» (a) They control through the means of (i) interpellation question hours (ii) debates and moving adjournment motion. Limitation: They can not pass a motion such as the no-confidence and bring down the government. (b) Rajya Sabha has 250 members 238 members are elected by the states and the union territories and 12 of them arg nominated by the President of India. One sixth members of the house are nominated by the Governor to the Vidhan Parishad. The members in Rajya Sabha are elected by the state legislative assemblies in accordance with the single transferable vote. Representation of UTs depends on parliament. (c) Four special powers of the Rajya Sabha: 1. Rajya Sabha may declare the creation of a new All India service. 2. No laws on any subject list can be made by Lok Sabha without a 2/3rd majority of the Rajya Sabha. 3. In case of an emergency it shoulders all the responsibilities. 4. It may declare that Parliament should make laws with respect to a matter in the state list. |
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| 1318. |
State the effect of inflation on creditors. |
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Answer» Inflation means persistent rise in price. Inflation is a state in which the value of money is falling, i.e., price are rising. At the time of inflation there is loss to the creditors because the value of money is falling. |
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| 1319. |
State one similarity between Monopolistic competition and Monopoly. |
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Answer» One similarity between Monopolistic competition and Monopoly is large number of buyers. Under both the markets AR > MR. |
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| 1320. |
“Entrepreneurs are innovators” said Schumpeter. Briefly explain. |
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Answer» Schumpeter said that the profit is the reward of innovation. Those entrepreneurs who are able to produce a commodity which other producers have not produced, from that he can earn profit. So the entrepreneur has to be creative risk taken. By the time his competitors will reach his level, he should innovate another commodity that is why it is said that entrepreneur are innovators. |
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| 1321. |
How do forests— (i) have a favourable effect on the climate of the region ? (ii) act as a flood control measure ? |
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Answer» (i) Forests temper’s down the temperature and helps in bringing rain. (ii) Forests bind the soil particles by their roots and absorbs water. |
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| 1322. |
Give one important use of each of the following types of trees : (i) Sundri. (ii) Sandalwood. (iii) Rosewood. |
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Answer» Uses of the following trees are : (i) Sundri: Used for making boats. (ii) Sandalwood: Used for making handicrafts and perfumery. (iii) Rosewood: Used for making expensive furniture. |
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| 1323. |
Define the following:(i) Sheet erosion (ii) Soil conservation (iii) In situ soil |
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Answer» (i) Sheet Erosion: When the vegetation cover of an area is removed, the rainwater instead of seeping into the ground, washes down the slope. A complete layer is carried along with water in a larger area. It is called sheet erosion. (ii) Soil Conservation: It refers to the steps taken to protect the soil from erosion. It aims at prevention as well as reclamation of soil that has been damaged by natural phenomenon or due to exploitation and improvishment over centuries. (iii) In Situ Soil: When the soil remains at the place of its formation it is called in situ soil. e.g. Black Soil. |
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| 1324. |
How do forests— (i) have a favourable effect on the climate of the region ? (ii) act as a flood control measure ? |
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Answer» (i) Forests temper’s down the temperature and helps in bringing rain. (ii) Forests bind the soil particles by their roots and absorbs water. |
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| 1325. |
Give three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources in India in the past. |
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Answer» Three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources are : (i) Increase in Population. (ii) Industrial Growth. (iii) Defects in the method of farming (slash and burn farming). (iv) Dependence of forest fuel for energy. (any three) |
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| 1326. |
To which type of forest do the following trees belong ? (i) Hintal and Sundari. (ii) Rosewood and Ebony. (iii) Deodar and Chir Pine. |
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Answer» (i) Hintal and Sundari – Tidal or Littoral Forest (ii) Rosewood and Ebony – Tropical Evergreen Rain Forest. (iii) Deodar and Chirpine – Mountain Forest. |
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| 1327. |
Describe any two objectives of Brand Promotion. |
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Answer» Two objectives of Brand Promotion: 1. Providing Information: A large part of a company’s brand promotional efforts has always been directed at providing proper and complete information to the customers about its various brands offered in the market. Brand promotion information contains the following things: new products launched; how they work; existing products; prices; selling centres; hours of sale; special schemes or offers such as percent off, discount, free-gifts, more guarantee period; and so forth. 2. Increasing Demand: Most brand promotions aim at stimulating demand for a product. They persuade customers to buy and to buy more and more, so that it results in large sales, thereby large market share and eventually huge profits. |
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| 1328. |
Explain the term Social Security. Explain any two Social Security measures adopted in India. |
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Answer» Social security: In the words of International Labour Organisation, ‘Social Security is that security that society furnishes through appropriate organisation against certain risks to which its members are exposed.’ According to I.L.O. “Social Security” is the protection which society provides for its members through a series of public measures against the economic and social distress that otherwise would be caused by the stoppage Or substantial reduction of earnings resulting from sickness, materity, employment, injury, unemployment, invalidity, old age and death, the provision of subsidies for family with children”. The two social security measures adopted in India are: 1. Provident Fund Scheme: Under the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous provisions Act, the Central Government has established the provident fund scheme for employees. Every employee is entitled to become member of the scheme after completing three months of continuous service. Both employer and employee contribute ten percent of the basic wages. The accumulated amount of savings is payable on retirement, death or at the time of leaving service. An employee can also withdraw this amount for construction of house or various other purposes. 2. Pension: Under the Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous provision act, the Government of India has framed family pension scheme to provide family pension benefits to employees. The scheme was launched with the objective of providing long term recurring financial assistance to the employee after retirement and to his family and in case of premature death while in service. |
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| 1329. |
The most electronegative element from the following elements is :(A) Magnesium(B) Chlorine (C) Aluminium(D) Sulphur |
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Answer» (B) Chlorine |
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| 1330. |
An electrolyte which completely dissociates into ions is :(A) Alcohol (B) Carbonic acid (C) Sucrose (D) Sodium hydroxide |
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Answer» (D) Sodium hydroxide |
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| 1331. |
Give four differences between an inducible and a repressible operon. |
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Answer» Differences between Inducible and Repressible Operon
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| 1332. |
What is DNA Micro-array technology’ ? |
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Answer» DNA microarray : A DNA microarray is a multiplex technology used in molecular biology and in medicine. It consists of an arrayed series of thousands of microscopic spots of DNA oligonucleotides, each containing picomoles (10-12 moles) of a specific DNA sequence, known as probes. This can be a short section of a gene or other DNA element that are used to hybridize a cDNA or cRNA sample (called target) under high-stringenev conditions. Probe- target hybridization is usually detected and quantified by detection of fluorophore-, silver-, or chemiluminescence-labeled targets to determine relative abundance of nucleic acid sequences in the target. Since an array can contain tens of thousands of probes, a microarray experiment can accomplish many genetic tests in parallel. Therefore arrays have dramatically accelerated many types of investigations. |
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| 1333. |
State Hardy-Weinberg’s principle. |
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Answer» All the genes and their alleles found in an interbreeding population is called gene pool. Normally, the alleles tend to maintain an equilibrium with reference to one another oyer the generation irrespective of the phenotypic expression. It is called genetic equilibrium. A change in relative frequency of alleles brings about evolution. |
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| 1334. |
State the effect of the following on the reaction 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) + 189.4kJ at equilibrium: (i) Temperature is increased.(ii) The concentration of SO2 is increased.(iii) The pressure is decreased.(iv) Helium is added at constant pressure. |
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Answer» (i) As a balanced reaction is endothermic, equilibrium will shift in a backward direction with an increase in temperature. (ii) Increase in conc, of reactants, shift the equilibrium in the forward direction, therefore, upon increasing conc. of SO2 equilibrium will shift in the forward direction or more of SO3 will be formed. (iii) As backward reaction proceeds with the increase in the number of moles, the backward reaction will be favoured. (iv) The backward reaction will be favoured. |
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| 1335. |
Explain why: (i) Transition elements form alloys.(ii) Zn2+ salts are white whereas Cu2+ salts are coloured. (iii) Transition metals and their compounds act as a catalyst. |
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Answer» (i) This is because transition metals have similar atomic radii and form substitutional alloys. (ii) Zn2+(3d10) salts have no impaired electrons but Cu2- (3d9) salts have one unpaired electrons. Hence Zn2+ salts are white while Cu2- salts are coloured. (iii) This is because of transition metals • have a number of unpaired electrons in their (n-1) d-orbitals • can show variable oxidation states. • form intermediates and provide a new reaction path having lower energy of activation. • they can adsorb one of the reactants on their surfaces. |
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| 1336. |
[Fe(CN)6]4- is a coordination complex ion.(1) Calculate the oxidation number of iron in the complex.(2) Is the complex ion diamagnetic or paramagnetic?(3) What is the hybridisation state of the central metal atom ?(4) Write the IUPAC name of the complex ion. |
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Answer» (1) x + 6(-1) = -4 ⇒ x = +2 (2) Fe2+ (3d6 ) has no unpaired electrons, it is diamagnetic (3) d2sp3 (4) hexacyanoferrate (II) ion. |
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| 1337. |
For the complex ion [Fe (CN)6]3- state:(i) The geometry of the ion.(ii) The magnetic property of the ion. |
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Answer» (i) Octahedral geometry (ii) Ion is paramagnetic. |
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| 1338. |
Explain why:(1) Nitrogen does not form pentahalides.(2) Helium is used for filling weather balloons.(3) ICI is more reactive than I2 |
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Answer» (1) Nitrogen does not form pentahalides because it has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence shell. (2) This is because it is lighter than air. (3) This is because ICl is polar and has lower bond energy than I2 (non-polar) |
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| 1339. |
What is an electrochemical series? How is it useful in predicting whether a metal can liberate hydrogen from acid or not? |
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Answer» It is a series or table in which the various electrodes are arranged in the increasing order of standard reduction potential values. With the help of the electrochemical series, we can predict whether a given metal can liberate hydrogen from acid or not. The metals which lie above hydrogen in the electrochemical series i.e. having negative standard reduction potential values can liberate hydrogen from dilute acids whereas metals which lie below hydrogen in the electrochemical series i.e., have positive standard reduction potential values cannot liberate hydrogen from dilute acids. |
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| 1340. |
The molal freezing point constant of water is 1.86 K kg mol-1 . Therefore, the freezing point of 0.1 M NaCl solution in water is expected to be:(1) -1.86°C (2) -0.372°C (3) -0.186°C (4) +0.372°C |
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Answer» (3) -0.186°C |
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| 1341. |
With reference to visual communication, explain the following:(i) Pie diagram (ii) Bar graph (iii) Histogram |
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Answer» When the information is shown through a circle, it is called a pie chart. Pie charts are often used when it is necessary to show the relationship of parts to a whole. If you use too many segments in the pie, the impact could be lost. We represent the information in the pie through percentage. In this chart shading may be used to focus special attention on a single element. Bar graphs are used to display data in a similar way to line graphs. However, rather than using a point on a plane to define a value, a bar graph uses a horizontal or vertical rectangular bar that levels off at the appropriate level. There are many characteristics of bar graphs that make them useful. Some of these are that: • They make comparisons between different variables very easy to see. • They clearly show trends in data, meaning that they show how one variable is affected as the other rises or falls. • Given one variable, the value of the other can be easily determined. A histogram is a type of graph that has wide applications in statistics. Histograms allow a visual interpretation of numerical data by indicating the number of data points that lie within a range of values, called a class or a bin. The frequency of the data that falls in each class is depicted by the use of a bar. |
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| 1342. |
Explain any two types of consumer products with examples. |
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Answer» Two types of consumer products are : Convenience Products : Convenience products are bought by the consumers most frequently. They are bought immediately and without great comparison between other options. Convenience products are typically low-priced, not-differentiated among other products and placed in locations where consumers can easily purchase them. The products are widely distributed, require mass promotion and are placed in convenient locations. Sugar, laundry detergent, pencils, pens and papers are examples all of convenience products. Shopping Products : Shopping products are bought less frequently by consumers. Consumers usually compare features of shopping products such as quality, price and style between other products. Therefore, shopping products are more carefully compared against other products and consumers spend considerably more time in comparison, as opposed to convenience products. Shopping products require personal selling and advertising. Airline tickets, furniture, electronics, clothing and phones are all examples of shopping products. |
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| 1343. |
Explain any five procurement functions of Human Resource Management. |
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Answer» Job analysis : It is the process of collecting information relating to the operations and responsibilities pertaining to a specific job. 1. Human resources planning : It is a process of determining and assuring that the organisation will have an adequate number of qualified persons, available at proper times, performing jobs which would meet their needs and provide satisfaction for the individuals involved. 2. Recruitment : It is the process of searching prospective employees and stimulating them to apply for jobs in the organization. 3. Selection : It is the process of ascertaining qualifications, experience, skills and knowledge of an applicant with a view to appraising his/her suitability to the job in question. 4. Placement : It is the process for matching the employee’s qualifications, experience, skills and interest with the job on offer. It is the personnel manager’s responsibility to position the right candidate at the right level. |
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| 1344. |
The Rajya Sabha is the second chamber of the Indian Parliament and represents the interest of the States. In this context explain the following: (a) Its composition.(b) Qualifications for membership.(c) Terms of the House and any two of its legislative powers. |
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Answer» (a) Composition: The Rajya Sabha consists of not more than 250 members. The members fall into two categories—nominated and elected. The nominated are 12 in number. They are nominated by the President from among persons having special knowledge or practical experience in matters such as theses, literature, science, art and social service. The remainders are the representatives of the States and Union Territories. The seats have been allocated to the States and Union Territories on the population basis. (b) Article 84 of the Constitution lays down the qualifications for membership of Parliament. Members of the Rajya Sabha must : 1. Be the citizens of India. 2. Make and subscribe before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule to the Constitution. 3. Be not less than 30 years of age. 4. Possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament. 5. Be elected by the Legislative Assembly of States and Union Territories by means of single transferable vote through proportional representation. (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved by the President of India. It is a permanent body like the American Senate. One third of its members retire at the end of every second year. It means that member of the Rajya Sabha have a six year term. Legislative Power: All bills, other than Money bills, can originate in the Rajya Sabha. No bill can become a law unless agreed to by both the house. In case of disagreement, the President may summon both the houses in a joint meeting. At the joint meeting questions are decided by a majority of the members of both Houses present and voting. |
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| 1345. |
(a) Mention two administrative changes that the British Government brought about regarding the East India Company’s rule in India.(b) Mention any two contributions of Jyotiba Phule in preparing the ground for the National Movement.(c) Who founded the Home Rule Leagues in India ? What was its objective ?(d) Who is regarded as the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi ? Give a reason for him being considered as the Mahatma’s Guru.(e) Mention any two causes for the rise of Assertive Nationalism.(f) Why was the Simon Commission rejected by the Congress ?(g) Who founded the Forward Bloc ? Mention any one of its objectives.(h) What is the meaning of ‘Fascism’ ?(i) Name the two rival blocs formed in Europe before World War I.(j) What is meant by the term ‘Non-Aligned Movement’ ? |
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Answer» (a) (i) Company’s board of control and Court of Directors were abolished. All their power was transferred to a cabinet minister, known as the secretary of state for India. (ii) Appointments to the civil service were to be made by open competition under rules made by the secretary of the state in council. (b) He worked for the upliftment of lower class and education of woman. He founded Satyashodhak Samaj (Society of Seekers of Truth) to attain equal rights for peasants and the lower caste. (c) In 1916, two Home Rule Movements were launched in the country : one under the leadership of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the other under Annie Besant. The objectives of the Home Rule League were : Establishment of self-government for India in British Empire. Working for national education and social and political reforms. (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale is regarded as the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi, after returning from South Africa and he received personal guidance from Gokhale, including a knowledge and understanding of India and the issues confronting common Indians. (e) The famine and plague, worsening of the Economic Conditions, Partition of Bengal, ill treatment of Indians in South Africa. (any two) (f) All the parties in India protested against the all British composition of the commission and there was no Indian member. It was rejected by the congress because its report was partial and inadequate. (g) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc. Establishment of class less society and socialism was its main objective. (h) Fascism is derived from the word fasces which mean “a bundle of rods” which signifies Unity, Authority and strength. It was an intensely nationalistic, anti communistic and anti democratic movement. (i) Two rival blocks formed in Europe were Triple alliance (Germany Austria Hungary and Italy) and Triple Entente (Britain, France and Russia). (j) The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) is a group of states which are not formally aligned with or against any major power bloc. Non aligned nations judge an issue on its merit. |
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| 1346. |
With reference to the United Nations and its Specialized Agencies, answer the following : (a) Mention any three functions of the International Court of Justice.(b) State the composition of the General Assembly.(c) State any two functions of the UNICEF and any two functions of WHO. |
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Answer» (a) (i) (a) It is composed of 15 judges elected for a 9-year term. (b) The judges are elected by both Security Council and General Assembly by a majority vote. (c) To maintain the continuity, one-third of the court i.e. five judges, are elected every three years. (d) The court elects its President and Vice-President for three years. It also has power to appoint its Registrar. (ii) (a) To settle disputes between member states by the United Nations in accordance with the International Law. (b) It can also advise the General Assembly or the Security Council on any legal question. (c) Other organs or agencies of the UNO may also request the advisory opinion on legal questions. (b) The General Assembly consists of all the members of the United Nations. Every member state can send a maximum of five representatives to the General Assembly but at the time of voting a state is entitled to cast only one vote. It means that all member states have equal status. (c) Functions of UNICEF : 1. Provision of Food : It helps in providing protective food like milk, meat, fish and fats to the children and pregnant women. 2. Health Services : UNICEF provides funds for the training of health and sanitation workers. It supphes medical equipment to rural health-centres. It makes effort to prevent diseases like T.B., malaria etc. Functions of WHO : 1. Research Work: The WHO promotes and coordinates research in the field of health by financing research projects in many countries. Its research activities include nutritious food, environmental safety, mental health, control of specific diseases like cancer, heart-attack etc. 2. Standardisation of Medicines : It sets international standards with respect to biological and pharmaceutical products. It also provides essential drugs to developing countries. |
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| 1347. |
With reference to the Two Major World Wars in the 20th century, answer the following questions : (a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism.(b) Explain briefly the territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I.(c) State any four causes that led to the Second World War. |
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Answer» (a) (i) Europe divided into Power Blocs : The major European nations were divided into Blocs. Germany, Austrian-Hungary and Italy formed Triple Alliance in 1882 AD and Britain, Russia and France formed Triple Entente in 1907. This also caused tension between their relations. (ii) Militant Nationalism and Mutual Rivalries : Nationalism in the 19th century had become competitive and aggressive. Love for one’s nation meant hatred towards other nations. The whole atmosphere was charged with narrow militant, atmosphere and inter-state rivalries. (iii) Clash of Imperialist Interests and Colonial Rivalry : There were small wars between France and Italy over occupation of Tunis ; between Britain and Russia over Persia etc. These wars resulted in two blocs in Europe : Britain, France and Russia on one side and Germany, Austria and Turkey on the other. (b) 1. (i) Many small states like Poland, Finland, Latavia etc. were created. (ii) The German territory to the West of Rhine Valley was to be occupied by the Allied Troops for 15 years. (iii) Germany w as to return Alsac and Lorane to France. (iv) She was to hand over Eupen and Malmedy to Belgium. (v) She also had to give Scheleswig to Denmark. (vi) The German city of Danzing was made a free port in the Polish territory. 2. (i) Britain and France divided and shared the regions of Togo and the Cameroons (South East Africa). (ii) German colonies in East Africa and South-West Africa were shared between England, Belgium, Portugal and South Africa. (iii) Japan was given Shantung and Kiau-Chow in China. (iv) New Zealand was given Samoa Island. (c) (i) Failure of democracies in Europe and the rise of dictatorships in Germany, Italy, Russia, Spain, Portugal, etc. (ii) Reaction against the unjust and humiliating Treaty of Versailles. (iii) Aggressive National and Expansionist pohcy of Italy, Germany, Soviet Russia and Japan. (iv) The armament race and the manufacture of deadly weapons of mass destruction. |
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| 1348. |
(a) State any one federal feature of the Indian Constitution.(b) How are the Rajva Sabha members elected? (c) Who presides over the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament? (d) Under what condition can a non-member of Parliament be made a Minister?(e) When can the Speaker of the Lok Sabha cast his vote?(f) When can the President use his Discretionary power to appoint the Prime Minister?(g) What is meant by ‘Collective Responsibility’ of the Cabinet?(h) How long can the Rajya Sabha retain the money bill sent by the Lok Sabha?(i) State one other qualification required to become a Judge of the High Court, apart from Indian citizenship.(j) Mention one reason to state that the Lok Adalat has its own advantage. |
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Answer» (а) In a federal government, there is a dual set of governments – Union Government and the State Government. The Union government runs the administration of the entire country and the state governments run the administration of the respective states. (b) The members of the Rajya Sabha from each State are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly (i.e. the Lower House) of the State. This is done by means of proportional representation called the Single Transferable Voting System. (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sessions of the Parliament, (d) He must be elected or nominated to the Parliament within six months. (e) Generally, the speaker does not participate in the discussions of the House and does not take part in the voting but in case of a tie, he/she exercises his’casting vote. (f) In the case of no single party getting a clear majority, a coalition of parties makes its claim to form the government, The President has to use his discretionary judgement and invite such a leader to head a government as Prime Minister who can provide a stable government to the country. His judgement and decision are of crucial importance. (g) The Council of Ministers is jointly or collectively responsible to the Parliament. Once they have reached a decision after full discussion in the meeting under Prime Minister’s Chairmanship, all the Ministers must defend it inside the Parliament and in the public. (h) 14 Days (i) Must have held a judicial office for not less than ten years in India or should have been an advocate of High Court for ten years. (j) A Lok Adalat delivers speedy and inexpensive justice. |
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| 1349. |
(a) Name the two houses of the Union Parliament.(b) How many members are nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha ? Which community do they represent ? (c) What is the required quorum to hold the meetings of the Lok Sabha ? (d) Mention one provision of the Constitution which clearly establishes the supremacy of the Lok Sabha with regard to money-bills.(e) Who has the power to promulgate an Ordinance at the Centre ? When can it be promulgated ? (f) Mention any one discretionary power of the President.(g) State any one qualification necessary for the election of the President of India.(h) Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ? (i) What happens if a Vote of No-Confidence is passed against a Minister in the Lok Sabha ? (j) State one advantage of a Lok Adalat. |
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Answer» (a) The two houses of the union parliament are the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. (b) Two members are nominated by the President from the Anglo Indian community. (c) The quorum to constitute a meeting of the Lok Sabha is 55 members or one tenth of total strength of the house. (d) The money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. It is up to Lok Sabha to accept or reject all or any recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. (e) President has the power to promulgate an ordinance at the Center. Ordinances are issued when both houses of parliament are not in session. (f) When no political party or no leader seems to enjoy majority support in the Lok Sabha, the President shall have freedom to decide who should be appointed as Prime Minister. (g) The citizen of India who has completed the age of thirty five years. (h) The Vice President is the chairman of the Rajya Sabha. (i) The whole government has to resign. (j) Lok Adalat work in the spirit of compromise. Lok adalats deliver speedy and inexpensive justice hence help in reducing the workload of other courts. |
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| 1350. |
(a) Identify the leader in the picture. Give two examples to state that the leader followed an expansionist policy.(b) State three factors that led to the rise of Fascism.(c) State four similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism. |
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Answer» (a) Benito Mussolini. Examples: (i) Mussolini used to proclaim, “Italy must expand or perish.” He wanted to acquire colonies for the country to satisfy nationalist urge and for the economic interests. (ii) Mussolini annexed Ethiopia (Abyssinia) in 1936 and also Abenia. (b) Circumstances that led to the rise of Fascism: 1. Discontentment after the treaty of Versailles: Italy had joined the AngloFrench alliance against Germany and her allies in the First World War as Britain had promised large chunks of territory after their victory. However the promise went unkempt to a certain extent. She had only two islands in the Adriatic and Aegean seas. Among Italians there was a feeling of being let down. 2. Economic crises in Germany and Italy, heavy losses, unemployment, shortage of food grains. At the end of the war, thousands of soldiers in Italy had become unemployed. Industrialization had not progressed and unemployment was on the rise. Even the unemployed working class felt the pinnacle of inflation with low wages and poor working conditions. There were frequent strikes and agrarian riots. 3. Political instability in Germany and Italy: Democracy was introduced in Italy in 1919, Collision Government, different parties and different polices, No continuity policies. Similar conditions existed even in Germany. 4. Class conflict: The real issue in most part of Europe was whether control of Government and economic system would continue in the possession of aristocracies or they would be in the hands of less privileged majorities. 5. Threat of communism: The communists inflamed the atmosphere with revolutionary ideas. 6. Failure of the League of Nations: Failed to check the rise of dictatorships. (c) The four similarities between Fascism and Nazism are: 1. Both Mussolini and Hitler aimed at restoring the status and dignity of their nations by making them strong powers. 2. Both aimed at providing strong, stable and efficient Governments. 3. Both uphold one party and one man rule, to believe in aggression, to glorify war, anti-democracy. 4. Both have faith in totalitarion rule. |
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