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This section includes InterviewSolutions, each offering curated multiple-choice questions to sharpen your knowledge and support exam preparation. Choose a topic below to get started.

101.

Which of these is the 1^st event to take place during transcription initiation?(a) Formation of a closed initiation complex(b) Formation of open initiation complex(c) Formation of absorptive transcript(d) Promoter clearanceThe question was posed to me during an internship interview.My doubt stems from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Initiation topic in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct answer is (B) Formation of OPEN INITIATION complex

The explanation: When the RNA pol is attached to DNA STRANDS that have still not melted the complex so formed is called open initiation complex. When the DNA melts it is known as open initiation complex. This follows the formation of abortive transcript and promoter clearance.

102.

The SR proteins bind to the __________________(a) Introns to be skipped(b) Introns not to be skipped(c) Exons to be skipped(d) Exons not to be skippedI got this question in unit test.Question is taken from Post-Transcriptional Modification in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (d) Exons not to be SKIPPED

Best explanation: BINDING of SR proteins on the exons ensure that the exon is not skipped. It doesn’t BIND to INTRON and in some weak exons it helps in skipping the exon thus helping in ALTERNATE splicing.

103.

You take a crude cell lysate and treat it with DNase. Now wash it and add protease. Use specific restriction endonuclease to get your desired fragment and run it on a gel. You see a single band. Which of the following will be true about the fragment?(a) It is actively transcribed(b) Only part of it is transcribed(c) No part of it transcribed(d) Undefined transcriptional natureI have been asked this question in an interview for internship.I'd like to ask this question from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Chromatin Remodelling in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct OPTION is (C) No part of it TRANSCRIBED

Explanation: DNase would only get access to uncondensed DNA. Uncondensed DNA is transcriptionally active. As the DNase would have cleaved the fully or partially transcriptionally active DNA, and our fragment is intact, we can SAY it was not at all being transcribed.

104.

In an experiment you perform the following- you attach a flag epitope to HDAC, you over express a mutated Mad1-pro gene within the experimental cell, you immunoprecipitate the protein complex using flag epitope and run that on a non-denaturing SDS PAGE and western blot. Now you add antibodies for HDAC, MAD1 and SIN3A stripping after each addition. What will you observe?(a) Bands at same position every time(b) 3 bands at different positions one at a time(c) Bands at same position on 2 occasions(d) No bandI have been asked this question during an interview.I need to ask this question from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Chromatin Remodelling topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The CORRECT ANSWER is (c) BANDS at same position on 2 occasions

Easy explanation: As Mad1-pro can’t bind to SIN3A due to the mutation it will not precipitate with the HDAC-SIN3A complex. Due to non-denaturing nature of the gel both the proteins MIGRATE together to the same distance so the band appears at the same position.

105.

Which experimental method can you use to detect 3’ end processing?(a) CHIP(b) Affinity chromatography(c) Northern blot(d) ImmunofluorescenceThis question was addressed to me at a job interview.Enquiry is from Post-Transcriptional Modification in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (B) Affinity chromatography

Easy explanation: An affinity chromatography using oligo T sephadex beads in the column can be USED to detect proper 3’ processing. If the RNA is properly processed the POLY A TAIL will adhere to the oligo T and will not COME out of the column without elution.

106.

Which of these promoter elements has a high propensity of developing mutation given the eukaryotic gene was inserted in prokaryotes?(a) CCAAT box(b) CPG islands(c) TATA box(d) EnhancerThe question was posed to me in an interview for job.Origin of the question is Transcription in Eukaryotes : Activators and Repressors topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (B) CPG islands

The explanation: This is because prokaryotic methylases would METHYLATE the C BASES of the CPG region. Then it there is a de-amination of C base, it will resemble a T base which is not as easily distinguishable as U by UDG. So, this region is very mutagenic.

107.

What is the range of telomere suppression?(a) 1kb(b) 3kb(c) 4kb(d) 10kbI got this question during an online interview.My question is based upon Transcription in Eukaryotes : Gene Silencing at Telomere topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer» CORRECT answer is (c) 4kb

Explanation: The TELOMERE suppression SPREADS up to 4kb from the telomere. This is possible due to the looping ACTION of RPA1 and SIR2-4 proteins by protein-protein interactions. The history at this regions are hemi-acetylated.
108.

For performing EMSA what type of gel should be used?(a) Native(b) Denaturing SDS-PAGE(c) Non-denaturing SDS PAGE(d) ZymographyThe question was asked in an interview for job.This key question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Transcription Factors in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct choice is (C) Non-denaturing SDS PAGE

To ELABORATE: A denaturing SDS PAGE would BREAK the interactions between the FACTORS which is being studied. Thus, a non-denaturing SDS PAGE is used. A native page on the other hand would be less clear while zymography is UNRELATED.

109.

In which of this condition is Ara operon functional?(a) When repressor binds to O2 and I1(b) When repressor binds to O1 and I2(c) When repressor binds to I2 and I1(d) When repressor binds to O2 and PcI got this question in an international level competition.The above asked question is from Operons : Lac and Ara in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (c) When REPRESSOR binds to I2 and I1

The best I can explain: When repressor binds to I1 and I2 then RNA polymerase faces no hindrance in binding to the promoter and the genes are turned on. On the other HAND when induces the repressor bind to O2 and I1 which leads to the looping out and turning off.

110.

You modify your gene DNA sequence by introducing an attenuator within the transcribed region. You isolate the labeled gene product and perform SDS PAGE. You observe two bands one higher and another slightly lower. Which of this band corresponds to properly modified sequence?(a) Higher(b) Lower(c) Both the bands as they show differently folded protein(d) This is an experimental artifactThis question was posed to me in homework.This question is from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Termination in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (b) Lower

Easy explanation: An ATTENUATOR will LEAD to PREMATURE transcription termination. This will result in a truncated protein that will migrate faster in the gel and FORM the lower band. Protein folding doesn’t affect its migration in SDS page.

111.

Mutations as far as 100 base pairs upstream to +1 site will also affect the transcription rate.(a) True(b) FalseThis question was posed to me in an interview for internship.The query is from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Initiation in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (a) True

To explain I would say: The Fas elements are LOCATED as far as -60 to -150 base PAIRS upstream to +1 site. Although these are not true promoter elements, mutations in the Fas site also effects TRANSCRIPTION.

112.

Which of these is not a part of RNA polymerase elongation machinery?(a) NTP entry channel(b) RNA entry channel(c) DNA entry channel(d) ClampThis question was addressed to me in a national level competition.My doubt is from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Elongation in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right answer is (b) RNA entry channel

Explanation: As the RNA is SYNTHESIZED there is an RNA exit channel but there is no NEED of RNA entry channel. Clamp and flap on the other HAND help to STABILIZE the POLYMERASE structure.

113.

In an experiment you try to hybridize a Dna single strand with a mature RNA. You observe loops being formed. These loops have ____________(a) Dna(b) RNA(c) HIstone octamer(d) Histone H1The question was posed to me at a job interview.Asked question is from Post-Transcriptional Modification in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct answer is (a) Dna

To ELABORATE: DUE to SPLICING the mature mRNA is SHORTER than the DNA with the introns in DNA looping out when they hybridize. Thus the loops have DNA.

114.

Histones are __________(a) Neutral(b) Positively charged(c) Negatively charged(d) Neutral with positive and negative domainsI have been asked this question in an internship interview.This is a very interesting question from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Chromatin Remodelling in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer» CORRECT answer is (B) Positively charged

The explanation: HISTONES are rich in positively charged amino acids namely lysine and arginine. Thus they have a net POSITIVE charge. This helps them to bind to the negatively charged DNA.
115.

Yeast mating factor alpha is located in _________________(a) HMR(b) MAT(c) HML(d) HATThe question was asked during a job interview.The question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Gene Silencing at Telomere in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer» CORRECT choice is (C) HML

For explanation I would SAY: The mating factor alpha is LOCATED in the left telomere at HML. This gets transferred to MAT LOCUS for expression. HMR has the ‘a’ mating factor.
116.

We know that loss of DNA bases is highly mutagenic. But a loss of DNA bases from which region will not have much affect at all?(a) Centromere(b) Satellite region(c) Hot spots for recombination(d) TelomeresThis question was addressed to me in an online interview.My question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Gene Silencing at Telomere topic in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The CORRECT choice is (d) Telomeres

For explanation I would say: TELOMERE GENES are mostly silenced so in case of any deletion mutation the deletion will not be detected. HOWEVER, loss of bases from anywhere else in the chromosome which transcribe RNA could be disastrous for the cell.

117.

Which factor stimulated phosphorylation of CTD of RNA polymerase II?(a) TFIIA(b) TFIIF(c) TFIIH(d) TFIIEI have been asked this question during an online exam.The doubt is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Transcription Factors topic in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (d) TFIIE

Best explanation: While TFIIH is actually PERFORMING the kinase action, TFIIE stimulates TFIIH to phosphorylate the CTD. TFIIA and TFIIF play no ROLE in PHOSPHORYLATION.

118.

Which of this is a cis binding element?(a) TAF(b) TBP(c) TFIIF(d) TFIIHThe question was posed to me in my homework.Question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Transcription Factors in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct OPTION is (b) TBP

To explain I WOULD say: TBP or TATA binding protein is the PART of TFIID complex that recognizes and BINDS the TATA consensus SEQUENCE in the promoter (cis element) of eukaryotic genes. The remaining options are also related to eukaryotic transcription but they have protein-protein interactions.

119.

All the RNA polymerases share 5 common subunits, which are present in all the three polymerases and are all alike. State whether the statement is true or false.(a) True(b) FalseI have been asked this question during an interview for a job.My enquiry is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : RNA Polymerases in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right option is (b) False

Explanation: ALTHOUGH these 5 subunits are common to all the RNA POLYMERASES YET they share some subtle differences- the CTD of the beta prime subunit of pol II has heptad repeat. ALSO the alpha subunits in RNA pol II are quite different from that of pol I and III.

120.

You can see non-cannonical base pairing in________(a) dsDNA(b) ssDNA(c) dsRNA(d) ssRNAThis question was posed to me in an interview.This is a very interesting question from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Termination in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct CHOICE is (C) dsRNA

Easy explanation: Along with canonical base pairing with the normal base pairs according to Watson-Crick RULES, dsRNA also forms non-cannonical base pairs. However, DSDNA can’t do so. ssRNA and ssDNA are called so because they are single stranded so there is no base pairing at all.

121.

A ssRNA shows inverted tandem repeat. What would be its secondary structure?(a) Linear(b) Hair pin(c) Stem-loop structure(d) CrucifixThe question was asked in an interview for internship.My doubt stems from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Termination in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (c) Stem-loop structure

To EXPLAIN I WOULD say: A tandem repeat has some bases between the palindrome regions resulting in the formation of the loop. The remaining COMPLEMENTARY sequences of the palindrome FORMS the stem. In case of dsRNA similar SEQUENCE would form a crucifix while absence of intersecting sequence will form hairpin.

122.

You add labeled Uridine analogue to the mixture of DNA and RNA pol in vitro. What are you trying to determine?(a) Catalytic subunit of RNA pol(b) Processivity of RNA pol(c) Presence of DNA – RNA hybrid(d) Length of DNA already transcribedI had been asked this question in an interview for job.This intriguing question originated from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Elongation topic in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct choice is (c) PRESENCE of DNA – RNA hybrid

The explanation is: The Uridine analogue can base pair with the RNA pol enzyme when there is a presence of a complementary STRAND (here DNA). THUS, its incorporation and cross linking will confirm the presence of RNA-DNA hybrid. We use labeled NTP to detect the other PROCESSES mentioned.

123.

Which cation is placed in the catalytic subunit of RNA polymerase?(a) Zn^2+(b) Mn^2+(c) Mg^2+(d) Fe^3+The question was asked in an online interview.My question is based upon Transcription in Prokaryotes : Initiation topic in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right OPTION is (c) Mg^2+

The explanation is: Magnesium ion is MANDATORY for the catalytic ACTION as it shields the NEGATIVE charge of the phosphate groups of rNTPs and also promotes the nucleophilic attack by the 3’-OH group. Manganese, zinc and iron are part of other biologically important enzymes.

124.

In an experiment you mutate the C terminal domain of alpha subunit of the RNA polymerase. What will you expect to see?(a) Transcription is absent(b) Transcription is at random sites(c) Transcription is less(d) Transcription is moreI have been asked this question in an online quiz.Question is taken from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Initiation topic in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (C) Transcription is less

Explanation: The C terminal domain of the alpha subunit is responsible for BINDING to the UP elements of the promoter. Such binding helps to enhance transcription so in ABSENCE of the binding transcription will be SLOWER. However, still transcription will OCCUR due to the presence of core promoter.

125.

CPSF and CStF bind to ____________(a) AAUAAA and G/U box respectively and bind is very strong(b) G/U box and AAUAAA respectively and bind is very strong(c) G/U box strongly but weakly AAUAAA(d) AAUAAA weakly but stabilization occurs after G/U bindingThe question was posed to me in an interview for job.The doubt is from Post-Transcriptional Modification in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct OPTION is (d) AAUAAA weakly but stabilization occurs after G/U binding

For EXPLANATION: CPSF binds to AAUAAA but the interaction is weak. This interaction is strengthened by CStF binding to G/U box and further stabilization occurs at CFI and CFII binding.

126.

In an experiment, you are trying to pull down the site where guanyl transferase binds by co-immunoprecipitation. You run a gel and autoradiograph to see a band denoting GSK-RNA pol II (phosphorylated). What will you see when you perform the same experiment with overexpression of GSK in one setup and overexpression of unlabelled GSK-RNA pol II in the other setup?(a) Band is observed in both cases(b) Band in 1^st case no band in 2^nd(c) No band in 1^st case and band in 2^nd(d) No band in both casesI got this question by my school principal while I was bunking the class.The origin of the question is Post-Transcriptional Modification in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (a) Band is OBSERVED in both cases

The explanation is: There will not be any change in the intensity of the 1^st band as GT is not binding to GSK tag. The 2^nd case also doesn’t change the intensity of the band as GT BINDS to phosphorylated –GSK-RNA pol II, so no GT BOUND unlabelled RNA exists to compete with the labeled band and decrease its intensity.

127.

Which of the following does not directly interact with DNA?(a) CPSF(b) CStF(c) PABPII(d) PAPI had been asked this question during an internship interview.Asked question is from Post-Transcriptional Modification topic in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct choice is (d) PAP

Explanation: PAP BINDS to CPSF and CStF by protein-protein INTERACTION and doesn’t actually bind to the DNA. However, the other factors are cis elements BINDING to SPECIFIC sequences.

128.

Which RNA transcript would be capped by the capping enzymes in vitro mixture of RNA?(a) Pol II transcripts(b) Pol I and Pol III transcripts(c) Pol I transcripts(d) Pol I, Pol II and Pol III transcriptsThe question was asked by my college professor while I was bunking the class.I need to ask this question from Post-Transcriptional Modification in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct OPTION is (d) POL I, Pol II and Pol III transcripts

The explanation: In vivo, only pol II transcripts are capped, however in VITRO when the different pol transcripts are mixed with the CAPPING enzymes all of them are capped SHOWING no specificity.

129.

Which of the following association acts as transcriptional activator?(a) Myc- Max(b) Mad- Max(c) Map- Mad(d) MapK- MycI had been asked this question in an international level competition.My question is taken from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Chromatin Remodelling topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer» RIGHT ANSWER is (a) Myc- MAX

The EXPLANATION: When Max associates with Myc the gene is transcriptionally active, while when Max associates with Mad the gene is inactivated. This is because Mad binds to SIN3A which brings about a HDAC.
130.

Which of the following will increase transcription?(a) Shielding positive charge of DNA(b) Shielding positive charge of histones(c) Shielding promoter for polymerase binding(d) Shielding termination regionThis question was addressed to me in my homework.My enquiry is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Chromatin Remodelling in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The CORRECT option is (C) Shielding promoter for polymerase binding

To elaborate: Histone binds to the negatively charged DNA due to its POSITIVE CHARGES. On DNA binding those regions of the DNA are not available for transcription. Thus, shielding the positive charge would loosen this binding and ENABLE more transcription.

131.

A eukaryotic cell can divide only a limited number of times.(a) True(b) FalseI have been asked this question by my school teacher while I was bunking the class.My question is taken from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Gene Silencing at Telomere in chapter Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right OPTION is (a) True

Easy explanation: As the cell goes on dividing in each DIVISION love GENES at the telomere is lost for the primer RNA at the telomere. THUS the DNA keeps shortening. If it shortens beyond a limit the cell undergoes apoptosis.

132.

While performing EMSA, in which situation will you see the band highest?(a) You add TFIID, TFIIA and polymerase(b) You add TFIID, TFIIB, TFIIF and polymerase(c) You add TFIID, TFIIA, TFIIF and polymerase(d) You add TFIIA, TFIIB, TFIIF and polymeraseThis question was addressed to me during an interview.The doubt is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Transcription Factors in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (b) You add TFIID, TFIIB, TFIIF and polymerase

To explain I would say: TFIID is absolutely necessary for any NUCLEATION to take PLACE at all. The complex formed by this composition is almost functional as TFIIA is not playing that important role. HOWEVER, TFIIB and TFIID absence HUGELY EFFECTS the formation of pre-IC.

133.

In what sequence are the serine residues in RNA pol II phosphorylated?(a) 5->2->7(b) 2->5->7(c) 2->7->5(d) 7->2->5I have been asked this question in semester exam.My query is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : RNA Polymerases topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (c) 2->7->5

The explanation is: The phosphorylation is at the 2^nd serine residue with the HELP of the TFIIH, and then during elongation the phosphorylation is at the 5^th serine residue. Between these two there is a short PHASE of phosphorylation at the 7^th serine.

134.

You designed an antibody against phosphorylated CTD of RNA polymerase II. Then you use a DNA fragment with lac operon and try to immunoprecipitate the RNA pol II. What will be the expected result?(a) Moderate concentration of RNA pol II will precipitate(b) RNA pol II that precipitated will be contaminated with pol III(c) High amount of RNA pol II will precipitate(d) No RNA pol II will precipitateThis question was addressed to me in semester exam.Enquiry is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : RNA Polymerases in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The CORRECT answer is (d) No RNA pol II will precipitate

The best explanation: Lac operon is a prokaryotic gene not recognized by eukaryotic RNA polymerase. Thus it will not be transcribing. Non-Transcribing RNA pol II doesn’t have phosphorylated residue in CTD, so it can’t be immunoprecipitated with the given ANTIBODY.

135.

We know that lactose has a positive impact on the activity of the lac operon. Tryptophan’s presence has a ________________(a) Positive feedback(b) Negative feedback(c) No difference(d) Highly positive impactI had been asked this question during an interview.My doubt is from Operons : Trp in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right option is (b) Negative feedback

Easiest explanation: Trp binding to the TRAP makes a trp-TRAP COMPLEX which binds to the RNA and stabilizes the TERMINATOR loop. Hence, TRYPTOPHAN’s PRESENCE has a negative feedback effect.

136.

You want your bacterial culture to grow well so you made an enriched media with all forms of carbohydrates. Which of this carbohydrate should you restore first if you want the culture to keep growing at the same rate?(a) Glucose(b) Lactose(c) Galactose(d) FructoseThis question was posed to me in class test.My question comes from Operons : Lac and Ara topic in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer» CORRECT answer is (a) GLUCOSE

Best explanation: Prokaryotes first use all the glucose in the media to derive energy. Only when they sense a low glucose level they search ALTERNATIVE energy SOURCES LIKE lactose, fructose or galactose.
137.

Which of these proteins help to backtrack the RNA?(a) XPC(b) Dna G(c) TFIIH(d) CSAI have been asked this question during an online exam.The doubt is from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Termination in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct answer is (d) CSA

For explanation: When the RNA polymerase encounters a bulky LESION the NER PROTEIN CSA heps the RNA to backtrack giving the NER mechanism a CLEARANCE of 100bp to act. XPC and TFIIH are also needed in NER but have different function. DNA G is a primase needed in prokaryotic replication.

138.

You wanted to isolate active RNA polymerase (with a part of the transcript associated with it ) from cellular mix. For this, you perform an immunoprecipitation with anti sigma antibody. Then you check the precipitate. What will you observe?(a) RNA polymerase with transcript(b) RNA polymerase without transcript(c) Only antibody(d) DNA with associated RNA polymerase and a transcriptI have been asked this question in an interview for job.Question is taken from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Initiation topic in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct answer is (b) RNA polymerase without transcript

Best explanation: Sigma FACTOR dissociates after INITIATION so anti sigma antibody will only PULL down RNA polymerase prior to promoter clearance. Thus, the POLYMERASES so obtained have no transcript ASSOCIATED.

139.

IN case of splicing the attacking group is _________________(a) ATP(b) GTP(c) A(d) GI have been asked this question at a job interview.My enquiry is from Post-Transcriptional Modification in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right CHOICE is (C) A

The explanation is: SPLICING requires a branch point A that can attach the 5’ end with the intron making a lariat structure. This doesn’t require ENERGY molecules like ATP.

140.

In a substrate X catabolic gene promoter you replace the normal histones by your experimental histones – ones with arginine side chains in place of histidine. What will be the effect on the concentration of substrate X against the control?(a) Concentration will increase(b) Concentration will decrease(c) Concentration will remain constant(d) Concentration will fluctuate and no definite result will be obtainedThe question was asked in final exam.My doubt stems from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Chromatin Remodelling in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right answer is (c) CONCENTRATION will remain constant

Explanation: Arginine SIDE chains can’t be acetylated, so there is no regulation. They are always positively charged and never bind loosely so no GENE product is produced. As these gene products are catabolic in their absence the substance X is not broken down so its concentration REMAINS constant.

141.

Repressors are active only when they are at the proximity of the RNA polymerase as they directly associate with the pre-initiation complex. State whether this is true or false.(a) True(b) FalseI had been asked this question in unit test.The question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Activators and Repressors in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (b) False

The explanation: Although often repressors DIRECTLY associate with RNA POLYMERASES it can also act by the means of a mediator as ENHANCERS do. So, they could be close or far from the transcription start site.

142.

TATA box in eukaryotes would be present in _________________(a) Housekeeping genes(b) Developmentally regulated genes(c) Cytoskeletal genes like that for actin(d) Highly specialized genes.This question was addressed to me in quiz.Asked question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Activators and Repressors in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (d) HIGHLY specialized GENES.

The explanation is: The highly specialized genes are likely to have a TATA box within their promoter. On the other hand the rest genes have TATAless PROMOTERS.

143.

Which segments of the attenuator together form the repression loop?(a) Segment 1-2(b) Segment 2-3(c) Segment 3-4(d) Segment 1-4The question was posed to me during an interview for a job.My question is based upon Operons : Trp topic in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct CHOICE is (b) Segment 2-3

For explanation I would say: In the absence of tryptophan when the RNA polymerase stalls at segment 1 of the ATTENUATOR it HINDERS the formation of loop 1-2. The alternate loop so FORMED is loop 2-3 which is the ATTENUATION loop.

144.

Which sigma factor is bound to Rse A?(a) σ^D(b) σ^G(c) σ^F(d) σ^EThe question was asked during an online exam.I'd like to ask this question from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Sigma Factor topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The CORRECT option is (d) σ^E

Explanation: Rse A BINDS σ^E and PREVENTS it from activating transcription. Under extreme conditions this binding is broken by cleavage of c terminal cytosolic tail of transmambrane Rse A, THUS RELEASING σ^E for transcribing necessary genes.

145.

Rho protein, that is necessary for transcription termination, is a ________(a) Homotetramer(b) Heterotetramer(c) Heterohexamer(d) HomohexamerThe question was posed to me in an online quiz.The question is from Transcription in Prokaryotes : Termination in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer» RIGHT option is (d) Homohexamer

For explanation I would say: Rho is a 46KDa hexameric protein with 6 IDENTICAL subunits. Thus, it is a holohexamer. A four subunit protein with all identical subunit would be a holotetramer, not identical subunit would be heterotetramer respectively.
146.

ESE bound to SR proteins ______________ splicing and ESE bound to hnRNA ______________ splicing.(a) Activate, activate(b) Activate, inactivate(c) Inactivate, activate(d) Inactivate, inactivateThe question was posed to me in semester exam.This interesting question is from Post-Transcriptional Modification in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct answer is (b) Activate, inactivate

Easy explanation: Binding of SR proteins to ESE or exon splicing ENHANCERS promotes splicing where that exon is retained. hnRNA is a competitive inhibitor of SR proteins that tend to bind ESE as well, thus it INACTIVATES.

147.

Which of the following shows incorrect matching?(a) Group I : G base(b) U1 : Exon(c) U2AF : U2(d) U6 : U2I got this question by my school teacher while I was bunking the class.This is a very interesting question from Post-Transcriptional Modification in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Correct option is (d) U6 : U2

For explanation I would SAY: In the spliceosome complex we SEE that U1 is replaced by U6 and not U2. U2AF on the other hand is replaced by U2. Other matches but d are correct.

148.

The absence of which factor will prevent TFIIH and TFIIE recruitment?(a) F(b) D(c) B(d) AI had been asked this question in class test.This key question is from Transcription in Eukaryotes : Transcription Factors topic in section Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right answer is (a) F

The EXPLANATION is: RNA polymerase bound TFIIF is necessary for recruiting TFIIH and TFIIE, TWO IMPORTANT transcription factors that trigger the INITIATION finally.

149.

In which microorganism will you find attenuation by alternate loop formation due to ribosomal stalling?(a) S. aureus(b) E. coli(c) S. typhimurium(d) B. subtlisI have been asked this question in an interview for internship.This intriguing question comes from Operons : Trp in division Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

The correct answer is (d) B. subtlis

The EXPLANATION is: This is a mechanism found in BACILLUS subtilis; where other microorganisms like E. coli have a DIFFERENT mechanism. E. coli has the anti–TRAP trp-TRAP mechanism.

150.

Which of these items have a positive impact on PEDCBA transcription?(a) Trp-TRAP(b) Trp-ANTI TRAP(c) Anti-Trp with TRAP(d) Anti-Trp with Trp-TRAPI had been asked this question in an international level competition.The origin of the question is Operons : Trp topic in portion Gene Expression : Transcription Prokaryotes of Cytogenetics

Answer»

Right ANSWER is (d) Anti-TRP with Trp-TRAP

Explanation: Anti- trp is an auto-regulating molecule that is sensitive to different levels of tryptophan. When tryptophan conc. is high enough to FORM trp-TRAP complex yet lower than necessary it binds to the Trp-TRAP complex THUS preventing repression.